Pharmacology

Download Q&A
Q. What does the term 'bioavailability' refer to in pharmacokinetics?
  • A. The rate of drug elimination
  • B. The fraction of an administered dose that reaches systemic circulation
  • C. The volume of distribution of a drug
  • D. The time taken for a drug to exert its effect
Q. What is a common adverse effect associated with the use of aminoglycosides?
  • A. Nephrotoxicity
  • B. Hepatotoxicity
  • C. Ototoxicity
  • D. Cardiotoxicity
Q. What is a significant adverse effect of chloramphenicol?
  • A. Gray baby syndrome
  • B. Tendon rupture
  • C. Photosensitivity
  • D. C. difficile infection
Q. What is the effect of protein binding on drug distribution?
  • A. Increases free drug concentration
  • B. Decreases free drug concentration
  • C. Has no effect on drug distribution
  • D. Increases drug metabolism
Q. What is the main therapeutic use of ACE inhibitors?
  • A. Hypertension
  • B. Diabetes management
  • C. Antibiotic therapy
  • D. Pain relief
Q. What is the mechanism of action of SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors)?
  • A. Inhibition of serotonin reuptake
  • B. Inhibition of dopamine receptors
  • C. Inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake
  • D. Activation of serotonin receptors
Q. What is the mechanism of action of SSRIs?
  • A. Inhibition of serotonin reuptake
  • B. Inhibition of dopamine reuptake
  • C. Blocking norepinephrine receptors
  • D. Increasing GABA activity
Q. What is the primary action of calcium channel blockers?
  • A. Increase heart rate
  • B. Decrease myocardial oxygen demand
  • C. Increase blood pressure
  • D. Enhance insulin secretion
Q. What is the primary barrier to drug absorption in the gastrointestinal tract?
  • A. Mucosal layer
  • B. Epithelial cells
  • C. Blood-brain barrier
  • D. Liver metabolism
Q. What is the primary mechanism by which most drugs are distributed throughout the body?
  • A. Active transport
  • B. Passive diffusion
  • C. Facilitated diffusion
  • D. Pinocytosis
Q. What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-blockers?
  • A. Inhibition of angiotensin II
  • B. Blocking beta-adrenergic receptors
  • C. Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
  • D. Activation of alpha-adrenergic receptors
Q. What is the primary mechanism of action of penicillins?
  • A. Inhibition of protein synthesis
  • B. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
  • C. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
  • D. Disruption of cell membrane integrity
Q. What is the primary route of drug absorption in the gastrointestinal tract?
  • A. Passive diffusion
  • B. Facilitated diffusion
  • C. Active transport
  • D. Endocytosis
Q. What is the primary route of elimination for most benzodiazepines?
  • A. Renal excretion
  • B. Hepatic metabolism
  • C. Pulmonary excretion
  • D. Biliary excretion
Q. What is the primary route of elimination for most beta-lactam antibiotics?
  • A. Hepatic metabolism
  • B. Renal excretion
  • C. Biliary excretion
  • D. Pulmonary excretion
Q. What is the primary route of elimination for most drugs?
  • A. Biliary excretion
  • B. Renal excretion
  • C. Pulmonary excretion
  • D. Sweat
Q. What is the term for the fraction of an administered dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation?
  • A. Bioavailability
  • B. Volume of distribution
  • C. Clearance
  • D. Half-life
Q. What is the therapeutic use of statins?
  • A. Hypertension
  • B. Hyperlipidemia
  • C. Diabetes
  • D. Asthma
Q. Which antibiotic class is primarily used to treat infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria and works by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?
  • A. Cephalosporins
  • B. Fluoroquinolones
  • C. Macrolides
  • D. Tetracyclines
Q. Which antibiotic is effective against methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
  • A. Cloxacillin
  • B. Vancomycin
  • C. Ampicillin
  • D. Gentamicin
Q. Which class of antibiotics is known for its ability to inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit?
  • A. Macrolides
  • B. Aminoglycosides
  • C. Tetracyclines
  • D. Glycopeptides
Q. Which class of drugs is primarily used to treat hyperlipidemia?
  • A. Statins
  • B. Beta-blockers
  • C. ACE inhibitors
  • D. Antidepressants
Q. Which drug class does metformin belong to?
  • A. Sulfonylureas
  • B. Biguanides
  • C. Thiazolidinediones
  • D. DPP-4 inhibitors
Q. Which drug class is commonly used as a first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes?
  • A. Sulfonylureas
  • B. Biguanides
  • C. Thiazolidinediones
  • D. Insulin
Q. Which factor does NOT significantly affect drug absorption?
  • A. pH of the environment
  • B. Surface area of absorption
  • C. Molecular weight of the drug
  • D. Color of the drug
Q. Which of the following antibiotics is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential to cause fetal harm?
  • A. Amoxicillin
  • B. Tetracycline
  • C. Ceftriaxone
  • D. Clindamycin
Q. Which of the following antibiotics is known for its broad-spectrum activity and is often used as a last resort for resistant infections?
  • A. Vancomycin
  • B. Ciprofloxacin
  • C. Meropenem
  • D. Amoxicillin
Q. Which of the following can lead to decreased drug absorption?
  • A. Increased gastric emptying time
  • B. Increased intestinal motility
  • C. High-fat meals
  • D. Acidic pH
Q. Which of the following can significantly affect the volume of distribution of a drug?
  • A. Body fat percentage
  • B. Age of the patient
  • C. Gender of the patient
  • D. All of the above
Q. Which of the following factors can enhance drug absorption?
  • A. High lipid solubility
  • B. High molecular weight
  • C. Low pH in the stomach
  • D. Presence of food
Showing 1 to 30 of 37 (2 Pages)
Soulshift Feedback ×

On a scale of 0–10, how likely are you to recommend The Soulshift Academy?

Not likely Very likely