Q. Aeromonas hydrophila is most commonly associated with which type of infection?
A.
Respiratory infections
B.
Gastroenteritis
C.
Skin and soft tissue infections
D.
Urinary tract infections
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Solution
Aeromonas hydrophila is often associated with skin and soft tissue infections, especially in aquatic environments.
Correct Answer:
C
— Skin and soft tissue infections
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Q. Astroviruses are primarily associated with which type of illness?
A.
Respiratory infections
B.
Gastroenteritis
C.
Hepatitis
D.
Meningitis
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Solution
Astroviruses are primarily associated with gastroenteritis, particularly in children.
Correct Answer:
B
— Gastroenteritis
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Q. At what stage does the embryo implant into the uterine wall?
A.
Zygote
B.
Morula
C.
Blastocyst
D.
Gastrula
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Solution
The embryo implants into the uterine wall during the blastocyst stage.
Correct Answer:
C
— Blastocyst
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Q. At what temperature does denaturation typically occur in PCR?
A.
50°C
B.
72°C
C.
95°C
D.
37°C
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Solution
Denaturation typically occurs at around 95°C, where the DNA strands separate.
Correct Answer:
C
— 95°C
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Q. Burkholderia mallei is the causative agent of which disease?
A.
Melioidosis
B.
Glanders
C.
Tularemia
D.
Brucellosis
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Solution
Burkholderia mallei is the causative agent of glanders, a disease primarily affecting horses but can infect humans.
Correct Answer:
B
— Glanders
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Q. During DNA replication, which direction does the DNA polymerase synthesize the new strand?
A.
5' to 3'
B.
3' to 5'
C.
Both directions
D.
Randomly
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Solution
DNA polymerase synthesizes new DNA strands in the 5' to 3' direction.
Correct Answer:
A
— 5' to 3'
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Q. During DNA replication, which strand is synthesized continuously?
A.
Lagging strand
B.
Leading strand
C.
Okazaki strand
D.
Template strand
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Solution
The leading strand is synthesized continuously in the direction of the replication fork.
Correct Answer:
B
— Leading strand
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Q. During transcription, which strand of DNA serves as the template?
A.
Coding strand
B.
Non-coding strand
C.
Both strands
D.
Neither strand
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Solution
The non-coding strand of DNA serves as the template for RNA synthesis during transcription.
Correct Answer:
B
— Non-coding strand
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Q. During which phase do cells prepare for mitosis?
A.
G1 phase
B.
S phase
C.
G2 phase
D.
M phase
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Solution
The G2 phase is the period where the cell prepares for mitosis, ensuring all DNA is replicated and the cell is ready to divide.
Correct Answer:
C
— G2 phase
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Q. During which week of embryonic development does the heart begin to beat?
A.
Week 3
B.
Week 4
C.
Week 5
D.
Week 6
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Solution
The heart begins to beat around the fourth week of embryonic development.
Correct Answer:
B
— Week 4
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Q. How are monoclonal antibodies typically produced?
A.
By recombinant DNA technology
B.
By chemical synthesis
C.
By fermentation
D.
By natural extraction
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Solution
Monoclonal antibodies are typically produced using recombinant DNA technology.
Correct Answer:
A
— By recombinant DNA technology
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Q. How do allosteric activators affect enzyme kinetics?
A.
Increase Vmax
B.
Decrease Km
C.
Both A and B
D.
No effect on Vmax or Km
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Solution
Allosteric activators can increase Vmax and decrease Km, enhancing enzyme activity.
Correct Answer:
C
— Both A and B
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Q. How do bacteriophages replicate?
A.
Binary fission
B.
Budding
C.
Lytic and lysogenic cycles
D.
Mitosis
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Solution
Bacteriophages can replicate through lytic cycles, where they destroy the host, or lysogenic cycles, where they integrate into the host genome.
Correct Answer:
C
— Lytic and lysogenic cycles
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Q. How do special proteins contribute to the nutritional quality of crops?
A.
By increasing fiber content
B.
By enhancing vitamin synthesis
C.
By reducing calorie count
D.
By improving taste
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Solution
Special proteins can enhance the synthesis of vitamins, improving the overall nutritional quality of crops.
Correct Answer:
B
— By enhancing vitamin synthesis
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Q. How do synthetic seeds contribute to food security?
A.
By reducing crop diversity
B.
By enabling rapid propagation of high-yield varieties
C.
By increasing reliance on chemical inputs
D.
By promoting monoculture farming
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Solution
Synthetic seeds enable rapid propagation of high-yield varieties, which can contribute to food security.
Correct Answer:
B
— By enabling rapid propagation of high-yield varieties
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Q. How do the kidneys respond to low blood pressure?
A.
Increase urine output
B.
Release renin
C.
Decrease sodium reabsorption
D.
Increase filtration rate
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Solution
In response to low blood pressure, the kidneys release renin, which activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system to help increase blood pressure.
Correct Answer:
B
— Release renin
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Q. How does phosphorylation affect translation?
A.
It always enhances translation
B.
It can inhibit or enhance translation depending on the context
C.
It has no effect on translation
D.
It only affects transcription
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Solution
Phosphorylation can inhibit or enhance translation depending on the specific proteins and context involved.
Correct Answer:
B
— It can inhibit or enhance translation depending on the context
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Q. How does the body respond to increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood?
A.
Decreased heart rate
B.
Increased respiratory rate
C.
Decreased blood pressure
D.
Increased oxygen consumption
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Solution
The body responds to increased carbon dioxide levels by increasing the respiratory rate to expel more CO2.
Correct Answer:
B
— Increased respiratory rate
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Q. How does the body respond to low blood pressure in terms of renal function?
A.
Increases urine output
B.
Decreases renin secretion
C.
Increases renin secretion
D.
Inhibits aldosterone release
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Solution
In response to low blood pressure, the kidneys increase renin secretion, which activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system to help raise blood pressure.
Correct Answer:
C
— Increases renin secretion
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Q. How does the body respond to low blood volume?
A.
Increased urine output
B.
Release of renin
C.
Decreased thirst
D.
Increased glomerular filtration rate
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Solution
In response to low blood volume, the body releases renin, which activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system to help restore blood volume.
Correct Answer:
B
— Release of renin
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Q. How does UV luminance spectroscopy help in assessing skin health?
A.
By measuring hydration levels
B.
By detecting melanin concentration
C.
By analyzing UV-induced DNA damage
D.
By evaluating blood flow
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Solution
UV luminance spectroscopy helps assess skin health by analyzing UV-induced DNA damage, which is crucial for evaluating skin cancer risk.
Correct Answer:
C
— By analyzing UV-induced DNA damage
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Q. How long can opened canned foods be safely stored in the refrigerator?
A.
1-2 days
B.
3-5 days
C.
1 week
D.
2 weeks
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Solution
Opened canned foods can typically be stored safely in the refrigerator for 3-5 days.
Correct Answer:
B
— 3-5 days
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Q. How many pairs of chromosomes do most domestic animals have?
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Solution
Most domestic animals, including humans, have 23 pairs of chromosomes, totaling 46 chromosomes.
Correct Answer:
B
— 23
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Q. In a simple reflex arc, which component detects the stimulus?
A.
Effector
B.
Interneuron
C.
Sensory receptor
D.
Motor neuron
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Solution
The sensory receptor detects the stimulus and initiates the reflex arc by sending signals to the central nervous system.
Correct Answer:
C
— Sensory receptor
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Q. In a simple reflex arc, which neuron type directly stimulates a muscle to contract?
A.
Sensory neuron
B.
Interneuron
C.
Motor neuron
D.
Efferent neuron
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Solution
In a simple reflex arc, the motor neuron directly stimulates a muscle to contract, resulting in a reflex action.
Correct Answer:
C
— Motor neuron
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Q. In anaerobic conditions, pyruvate is converted to which substance?
A.
Acetyl-CoA
B.
Ethanol
C.
Lactate
D.
Oxaloacetate
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Solution
Under anaerobic conditions, pyruvate is converted to lactate in humans.
Correct Answer:
C
— Lactate
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Q. In biological systems, what does Gibbs free energy indicate?
A.
The total energy of a system
B.
The spontaneity of a process
C.
The temperature of the system
D.
The pressure exerted by gases
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Solution
Gibbs free energy indicates the spontaneity of a process; a negative change indicates a spontaneous reaction.
Correct Answer:
B
— The spontaneity of a process
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Q. In chronic inflammation, which cell type is predominantly found in the tissue?
A.
Neutrophils
B.
Macrophages
C.
Mast cells
D.
Basophils
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Solution
Macrophages are the predominant cell type in chronic inflammation, contributing to tissue repair and the immune response.
Correct Answer:
B
— Macrophages
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Q. In fermentation kinetics, what does the term 'lag phase' refer to?
A.
Rapid growth phase
B.
Adaptation period
C.
Stationary phase
D.
Decline phase
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Solution
The lag phase is the adaptation period where microorganisms adjust to their environment before active growth begins.
Correct Answer:
B
— Adaptation period
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Q. In FTIR spectroscopy, what is the purpose of the interferometer?
A.
To amplify signals
B.
To separate wavelengths
C.
To create an interference pattern
D.
To cool samples
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Solution
The interferometer in FTIR spectroscopy creates an interference pattern that is used to obtain the spectrum of the sample.
Correct Answer:
C
— To create an interference pattern
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