Q. Which of the following is a condition precedent?
A.
A condition that must be fulfilled before a contract becomes effective
B.
A condition that must be fulfilled after a contract is formed
C.
A condition that is implied by law
D.
A condition that is not enforceable
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Solution
A condition precedent is a condition that must be fulfilled before a contract becomes effective.
Correct Answer:
A
— A condition that must be fulfilled before a contract becomes effective
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Q. Which of the following is a constitutional remedy available for the enforcement of fundamental rights?
A.
Writ of Certiorari
B.
Writ of Mandamus
C.
Writ of Prohibition
D.
All of the above
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Solution
All of the options listed are types of writs that can be issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
Correct Answer:
D
— All of the above
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Q. Which of the following is a constitutional remedy related to the enforcement of Directive Principles?
A.
Writ of Mandamus
B.
Writ of Certiorari
C.
Writ of Habeas Corpus
D.
Writ of Quo Warranto
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Solution
The Writ of Mandamus can be used to enforce the implementation of Directive Principles.
Correct Answer:
A
— Writ of Mandamus
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Q. Which of the following is a defense to the enforcement of a contract?
A.
Lack of consideration.
B.
Mutual assent.
C.
Legality of purpose.
D.
Capacity to contract.
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Solution
Lack of consideration can be a defense to the enforcement of a contract.
Correct Answer:
A
— Lack of consideration.
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Q. Which of the following is a defense under general exceptions in IPC for cyber crimes?
A.
Mistake of fact
B.
Intoxication
C.
Insanity
D.
All of the above
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Solution
All of the above are recognized defenses under general exceptions in IPC.
Correct Answer:
D
— All of the above
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Q. Which of the following is a Directive Principle aimed at promoting international peace and security?
A.
Article 51
B.
Article 45
C.
Article 39
D.
Article 41
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Solution
Article 51 of the Constitution promotes international peace and security as a Directive Principle.
Correct Answer:
A
— Article 51
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Q. Which of the following is a feature of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
A.
They are enforceable by law
B.
They are justiciable
C.
They are fundamental in governance
D.
They are absolute rights
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Solution
The Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in governance and guide the state in making laws and policies.
Correct Answer:
C
— They are fundamental in governance
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Q. Which of the following is a fundamental duty related to the Directive Principles?
A.
To promote harmony
B.
To safeguard public property
C.
To protect the environment
D.
All of the above
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Solution
All of the options listed are fundamental duties that align with the goals of the Directive Principles.
Correct Answer:
D
— All of the above
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Q. Which of the following is a key principle of contract law?
A.
Mutual consent
B.
Profit maximization
C.
Market competition
D.
Risk management
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Solution
Mutual consent is a key principle of contract law, as it requires that all parties agree to the terms of the contract.
Correct Answer:
A
— Mutual consent
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Q. Which of the following is a remedy for breach of contract?
A.
Specific performance
B.
Punitive damages
C.
Injunction
D.
All of the above
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Solution
All of the options listed can be considered remedies for breach of contract.
Correct Answer:
D
— All of the above
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Q. Which of the following is a requirement for a party to recover consequential damages?
A.
The damages must be foreseeable
B.
The damages must be punitive
C.
The damages must be nominal
D.
The damages must be liquidated
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Solution
To recover consequential damages, the damages must be foreseeable at the time the contract was made.
Correct Answer:
A
— The damages must be foreseeable
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Q. Which of the following is a requirement for a party to recover damages for breach of contract?
A.
The damages must be foreseeable
B.
The damages must be punitive
C.
The damages must be nominal
D.
The damages must be agreed upon in advance
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Solution
To recover damages for breach of contract, the damages must be foreseeable at the time the contract was made.
Correct Answer:
A
— The damages must be foreseeable
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Q. Which of the following is a requirement for a valid acceptance?
A.
It must be communicated to the offeror
B.
It must be in writing
C.
It must be made within a reasonable time
D.
All of the above
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Solution
A valid acceptance must be communicated to the offeror, and while it is often in writing, it is not strictly required unless specified.
Correct Answer:
A
— It must be communicated to the offeror
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Q. Which of the following is a valid defense against a breach of contract claim?
A.
Impossibility of performance
B.
Lack of consideration
C.
Mutual mistake
D.
All of the above
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Solution
All of the listed options can serve as valid defenses against a breach of contract claim.
Correct Answer:
D
— All of the above
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Q. Which of the following is a valid defense to a breach of contract claim?
A.
Impossibility of performance
B.
Lack of consideration
C.
Mutual mistake
D.
All of the above
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Solution
All of the listed options can serve as valid defenses to a breach of contract claim.
Correct Answer:
D
— All of the above
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Q. Which of the following is an example of a breach of contract?
A.
One party fails to deliver goods as promised.
B.
One party offers a lower price.
C.
One party changes their mind about the deal.
D.
One party asks for more time to think.
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Solution
A breach of contract occurs when one party fails to fulfill their obligations under the contract.
Correct Answer:
A
— One party fails to deliver goods as promised.
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Q. Which of the following is an example of a condition precedent?
A.
A contract that is void from the start
B.
A contract that requires payment before delivery
C.
A contract that is fulfilled immediately
D.
A contract that can be terminated at any time
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Solution
A condition precedent is an event that must occur before a contract becomes effective, such as payment before delivery.
Correct Answer:
B
— A contract that requires payment before delivery
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a common remedy for breach of contract?
A.
Damages
B.
Specific performance
C.
Rescission
D.
Injunction
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Solution
Injunctions are typically used in tort law and are not a common remedy for breach of contract.
Correct Answer:
D
— Injunction
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a cyber crime under IPC?
A.
Hacking
B.
Identity theft
C.
Defamation
D.
Phishing
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Solution
Defamation is not classified as a cyber crime under IPC; it is a separate offense.
Correct Answer:
C
— Defamation
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a Directive Principle of State Policy?
A.
Right to work
B.
Right to education
C.
Right to an adequate means of livelihood
D.
Right to equality
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Solution
The Right to equality is a Fundamental Right under Part III of the Constitution, not a Directive Principle.
Correct Answer:
D
— Right to equality
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a feature of federalism in India?
A.
Dual government system
B.
Distribution of powers
C.
Single citizenship
D.
Independent judiciary
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Solution
Single citizenship is not a feature of federalism; it is a feature of the Indian Constitution as a whole.
Correct Answer:
C
— Single citizenship
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a ground for arrest without a warrant under Section 41?
A.
The person is accused of a cognizable offense
B.
The person is likely to abscond
C.
The person is a first-time offender
D.
The person is committing a cognizable offense
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Solution
Being a first-time offender is not a ground for arrest without a warrant under Section 41; the section focuses on the nature of the offense and the likelihood of absconding.
Correct Answer:
C
— The person is a first-time offender
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a part of the investigation process?
A.
Collection of evidence
B.
Interrogation of suspects
C.
Filing of charges
D.
Arrest of witnesses
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Solution
Arrest of witnesses is not a part of the investigation process; witnesses are typically called to provide testimony.
Correct Answer:
D
— Arrest of witnesses
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a remedy for breach of contract?
A.
Damages
B.
Specific performance
C.
Rescission
D.
Negotiation
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Solution
Negotiation is not a legal remedy for breach of contract; it is a method of resolving disputes.
Correct Answer:
D
— Negotiation
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a valid contract?
A.
Offer and acceptance
B.
Consideration
C.
Legality of purpose
D.
Written documentation
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Solution
While written documentation is often advisable, it is not a strict requirement for a valid contract; oral contracts can also be valid.
Correct Answer:
D
— Written documentation
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a valid marriage contract?
A.
Consent of both parties
B.
Legal capacity to marry
C.
A marriage license
D.
A religious ceremony
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Solution
A religious ceremony is not a requirement for a valid marriage contract; legal capacity, consent, and a marriage license are essential.
Correct Answer:
D
— A religious ceremony
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a valid offer?
A.
Intention to create legal relations
B.
Certainty of terms
C.
Communication to the offeree
D.
Acceptance by a third party
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Solution
Acceptance by a third party is not a requirement for a valid offer; the offer must be accepted by the offeree.
Correct Answer:
D
— Acceptance by a third party
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for acceptance of an offer?
A.
Acceptance must be communicated
B.
Acceptance must be unconditional
C.
Acceptance can be implied by conduct
D.
Acceptance must be in writing
Show solution
Solution
Acceptance does not have to be in writing unless specified by the offeror.
Correct Answer:
D
— Acceptance must be in writing
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the admissibility of evidence?
A.
Relevance
B.
Materiality
C.
Competence
D.
Public interest
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Solution
Public interest is not a requirement for the admissibility of evidence.
Correct Answer:
D
— Public interest
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a type of breach of contract?
A.
Minor breach
B.
Material breach
C.
Anticipatory breach
D.
Partial breach
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Solution
Partial breach is not a recognized type of breach; the correct terms are minor, material, and anticipatory breaches.
Correct Answer:
D
— Partial breach
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