Medical Science MCQ & Objective Questions
Medical Science is a crucial subject for students aspiring to excel in their school and competitive exams. Understanding key concepts and practicing MCQs can significantly enhance your exam preparation. By solving objective questions, you can identify important topics and improve your chances of scoring better in exams.
What You Will Practise Here
Fundamentals of Human Anatomy and Physiology
Key Concepts in Microbiology and Immunology
Essential Definitions and Terminology in Medical Science
Important Diagrams related to Body Systems
Pathology and Disease Mechanisms
Pharmacology Basics and Drug Classifications
Common Medical Procedures and Their Implications
Exam Relevance
Medical Science is a significant part of the curriculum for CBSE, State Boards, NEET, and JEE exams. Questions often focus on understanding human body systems, disease processes, and medical terminology. Common patterns include multiple-choice questions that test both theoretical knowledge and practical application, making it essential to be well-prepared with important Medical Science MCQ questions.
Common Mistakes Students Make
Overlooking the importance of diagrams in understanding anatomy.
Confusing similar terms in pharmacology and their applications.
Neglecting to connect theoretical concepts with practical scenarios.
Misinterpreting questions due to lack of careful reading.
FAQs
Question: What are the best ways to prepare for Medical Science MCQs?Answer: Regular practice of objective questions, reviewing key concepts, and understanding diagrams are effective strategies.
Question: How can I improve my score in Medical Science exams?Answer: Focus on solving practice questions and revising important topics consistently.
Now is the time to enhance your understanding of Medical Science! Dive into our practice MCQs and test your knowledge to ensure you are well-prepared for your exams. Remember, consistent practice leads to success!
Q. What is the effect of pasteurization on milk?
A.
Increases fat content
B.
Destroys harmful bacteria
C.
Enhances flavor
D.
Increases lactose content
Show solution
Solution
Pasteurization is a heat treatment process that destroys harmful bacteria in milk.
Correct Answer:
B
— Destroys harmful bacteria
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Q. What is the effect of pH on enzyme activity?
A.
Enzymes work best at any pH
B.
Each enzyme has an optimal pH range
C.
pH has no effect on enzyme activity
D.
All enzymes are active at neutral pH only
Show solution
Solution
Each enzyme has an optimal pH range where it functions best; deviations can lead to decreased activity or denaturation.
Correct Answer:
B
— Each enzyme has an optimal pH range
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Q. What is the effect of pH on peptide solubility?
A.
It has no effect
B.
It can increase solubility at all pH levels
C.
It can decrease solubility at certain pH levels
D.
It only affects hydrophobic peptides
Show solution
Solution
The solubility of peptides can be affected by pH, as it influences the ionization of amino acid side chains.
Correct Answer:
C
— It can decrease solubility at certain pH levels
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Q. What is the effect of pH on protein stability?
A.
Only affects solubility
B.
Can lead to denaturation
C.
Has no effect
D.
Only affects enzymatic activity
Show solution
Solution
pH can lead to denaturation, affecting protein stability and function.
Correct Answer:
B
— Can lead to denaturation
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Q. What is the effect of protein binding on drug distribution?
A.
Increases free drug concentration
B.
Decreases free drug concentration
C.
Has no effect on drug distribution
D.
Increases drug metabolism
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Solution
Protein binding decreases the free drug concentration available for distribution, as only unbound drugs can exert pharmacological effects.
Correct Answer:
B
— Decreases free drug concentration
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Q. What is the effect of St. John's Wort on the metabolism of certain drugs?
A.
Inhibits CYP450 enzymes
B.
Induces CYP450 enzymes
C.
Has no effect on drug metabolism
D.
Inhibits P-glycoprotein
Show solution
Solution
St. John's Wort is known to induce CYP450 enzymes, which can lead to decreased effectiveness of drugs metabolized by these enzymes.
Correct Answer:
B
— Induces CYP450 enzymes
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Q. What is the effect of sympathetic stimulation on the heart?
A.
Decreases heart rate
B.
Increases heart rate
C.
Has no effect
D.
Decreases stroke volume
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Solution
Sympathetic stimulation increases heart rate and contractility, preparing the body for 'fight or flight' responses.
Correct Answer:
B
— Increases heart rate
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Q. What is the effect of temperature on enzyme activity according to thermodynamic principles?
A.
Increases indefinitely
B.
Decreases indefinitely
C.
Increases to an optimal point then decreases
D.
Has no effect
Show solution
Solution
Enzyme activity typically increases with temperature to an optimal point, after which it decreases due to denaturation.
Correct Answer:
C
— Increases to an optimal point then decreases
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Q. What is the effect of temperature on enzyme activity?
A.
Increases indefinitely
B.
Decreases indefinitely
C.
Increases to an optimal point then decreases
D.
Has no effect
Show solution
Solution
Enzyme activity typically increases with temperature to an optimal point, after which it decreases due to denaturation.
Correct Answer:
C
— Increases to an optimal point then decreases
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Q. What is the effect of thyroid hormones on metabolism?
A.
Decrease metabolic rate
B.
Increase metabolic rate
C.
No effect on metabolism
D.
Regulate calcium metabolism
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Solution
Thyroid hormones, primarily thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), increase the metabolic rate and influence various metabolic processes.
Correct Answer:
B
— Increase metabolic rate
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Q. What is the effect of trans fats on health?
A.
Increase HDL levels
B.
Decrease LDL levels
C.
Increase inflammation
D.
Have no effect on cholesterol
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Solution
Trans fats are known to increase inflammation and are associated with higher LDL cholesterol levels.
Correct Answer:
C
— Increase inflammation
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Q. What is the effect of uncouplers on oxidative phosphorylation?
A.
Increase ATP production
B.
Decrease oxygen consumption
C.
Increase heat production
D.
Inhibit electron transport
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Solution
Uncouplers disrupt the proton gradient, leading to increased heat production instead of ATP.
Correct Answer:
C
— Increase heat production
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Q. What is the effect of vasodilation on blood flow?
A.
Increases blood flow
B.
Decreases blood flow
C.
Has no effect on blood flow
D.
Causes blood to clot
Show solution
Solution
Vasodilation refers to the widening of blood vessels, which increases blood flow to tissues.
Correct Answer:
A
— Increases blood flow
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Q. What is the end product of complete fatty acid oxidation?
A.
Glucose
B.
Acetyl-CoA
C.
Fatty acids
D.
Carbon dioxide and water
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Solution
The complete oxidation of fatty acids results in carbon dioxide and water, along with ATP production.
Correct Answer:
D
— Carbon dioxide and water
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Q. What is the end product of glycolysis?
A.
Pyruvate
B.
Acetyl-CoA
C.
Lactic Acid
D.
Glucose
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Solution
The end product of glycolysis is pyruvate.
Correct Answer:
A
— Pyruvate
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Q. What is the end product of lactic acid fermentation?
A.
Ethanol
B.
Lactic acid
C.
Acetic acid
D.
Carbon dioxide
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Solution
Lactic acid fermentation results in the production of lactic acid.
Correct Answer:
B
— Lactic acid
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Q. What is the end product of the Krebs cycle?
A.
Glucose
B.
Lactic acid
C.
Carbon dioxide and water
D.
Acetyl-CoA
Show solution
Solution
The end products of the Krebs cycle are carbon dioxide and water, along with electron carriers NADH and FADH2.
Correct Answer:
C
— Carbon dioxide and water
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Q. What is the end product of the urea cycle?
A.
Uric acid
B.
Ammonia
C.
Urea
D.
Creatinine
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Solution
The end product of the urea cycle is urea, which is excreted in urine.
Correct Answer:
C
— Urea
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Q. What is the energy yield of one molecule of glucose during aerobic respiration?
A.
2 ATP
B.
30-32 ATP
C.
36-38 ATP
D.
4 ATP
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Solution
The complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose during aerobic respiration yields approximately 30-32 ATP.
Correct Answer:
C
— 36-38 ATP
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Q. What is the fate of excess amino acids in the body?
A.
Stored as proteins
B.
Converted to glucose
C.
Converted to fatty acids
D.
Excreted unchanged
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Solution
Excess amino acids are typically converted to glucose through gluconeogenesis or stored as fat.
Correct Answer:
B
— Converted to glucose
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Q. What is the first line of defense in the immune system?
A.
B cells
B.
T cells
C.
Physical barriers
D.
Cytokines
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Solution
Physical barriers, such as skin and mucous membranes, constitute the first line of defense against pathogens.
Correct Answer:
C
— Physical barriers
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Q. What is the first step of protein synthesis?
A.
Translation
B.
Transcription
C.
Post-translational modification
D.
Amino acid activation
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Solution
Transcription is the first step of protein synthesis, where mRNA is synthesized from DNA.
Correct Answer:
B
— Transcription
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Q. What is the first-line treatment for a confirmed Streptococcus pyogenes infection?
A.
Amoxicillin
B.
Azithromycin
C.
Penicillin
D.
Ciprofloxacin
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Solution
Penicillin is the first-line treatment for a confirmed Streptococcus pyogenes infection.
Correct Answer:
C
— Penicillin
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Q. What is the first-line treatment for active tuberculosis?
A.
Amoxicillin
B.
Isoniazid
C.
Ciprofloxacin
D.
Vancomycin
Show solution
Solution
Isoniazid is one of the first-line medications used to treat active tuberculosis.
Correct Answer:
B
— Isoniazid
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Q. What is the first-line treatment for brucellosis?
A.
Amoxicillin
B.
Doxycycline
C.
Ciprofloxacin
D.
Azithromycin
Show solution
Solution
Doxycycline is commonly used as a first-line treatment for brucellosis, often in combination with rifampin.
Correct Answer:
B
— Doxycycline
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Q. What is the function of a silencer in gene regulation?
A.
To enhance transcription
B.
To inhibit transcription
C.
To splice RNA
D.
To replicate DNA
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Solution
A silencer is a regulatory element that inhibits transcription when bound by specific proteins.
Correct Answer:
B
— To inhibit transcription
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Q. What is the function of a viral envelope?
A.
To protect the host cell
B.
To aid in attachment to host cells
C.
To replicate viral DNA
D.
To produce proteins
Show solution
Solution
The viral envelope helps the virus attach to and enter host cells.
Correct Answer:
B
— To aid in attachment to host cells
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Q. What is the function of aldolase in glycolysis?
A.
Phosphorylation
B.
Cleavage
C.
Isomerization
D.
Dehydrogenation
Show solution
Solution
Aldolase catalyzes the cleavage of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate into two three-carbon sugars.
Correct Answer:
B
— Cleavage
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Q. What is the function of antifreeze proteins in crops?
A.
Preventing freezing damage
B.
Enhancing nutrient uptake
C.
Increasing growth rate
D.
Improving flavor profile
Show solution
Solution
Antifreeze proteins prevent freezing damage by lowering the freezing point of water in plant cells.
Correct Answer:
A
— Preventing freezing damage
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Q. What is the function of antioxidants in the diet?
A.
To provide energy
B.
To support immune function
C.
To protect cells from damage
D.
To aid in digestion
Show solution
Solution
Antioxidants help protect cells from oxidative stress and damage caused by free radicals.
Correct Answer:
C
— To protect cells from damage
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