Major Competitive Exams

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Major Competitive Exams

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Major Competitive Exams MCQ & Objective Questions

Major Competitive Exams play a crucial role in shaping the academic and professional futures of students in India. These exams not only assess knowledge but also test problem-solving skills and time management. Practicing MCQs and objective questions is essential for scoring better, as they help in familiarizing students with the exam format and identifying important questions that frequently appear in tests.

What You Will Practise Here

Key concepts and theories related to major subjects
Important formulas and their applications
Definitions of critical terms and terminologies
Diagrams and illustrations to enhance understanding
Practice questions that mirror actual exam patterns
Strategies for solving objective questions efficiently
Time management techniques for competitive exams

Exam Relevance

The topics covered under Major Competitive Exams are integral to various examinations such as CBSE, State Boards, NEET, and JEE. Students can expect to encounter a mix of conceptual and application-based questions that require a solid understanding of the subjects. Common question patterns include multiple-choice questions that test both knowledge and analytical skills, making it essential to be well-prepared with practice MCQs.

Common Mistakes Students Make

Rushing through questions without reading them carefully
Overlooking the negative marking scheme in MCQs
Confusing similar concepts or terms
Neglecting to review previous years’ question papers
Failing to manage time effectively during the exam

FAQs

Question: How can I improve my performance in Major Competitive Exams?
Answer: Regular practice of MCQs and understanding key concepts will significantly enhance your performance.

Question: What types of questions should I focus on for these exams?
Answer: Concentrate on important Major Competitive Exams questions that frequently appear in past papers and mock tests.

Question: Are there specific strategies for tackling objective questions?
Answer: Yes, practicing under timed conditions and reviewing mistakes can help develop effective strategies.

Start your journey towards success by solving practice MCQs today! Test your understanding and build confidence for your upcoming exams. Remember, consistent practice is the key to mastering Major Competitive Exams!

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Q. If the radius of the Earth is R, what is the gravitational acceleration at a height R above the Earth's surface?

A. g/4
B. g/2
C. g
D. g/8

Solution

At a height R above the Earth's surface, the gravitational acceleration is g/4, derived from the formula g' = g(R/(R+h))^2.

Correct Answer: A — g/4

Q. If the radius of the Earth is R, what is the radius of a satellite in a geostationary orbit?

A. R
B. 2R
C. 3R
D. 4R

Solution

The radius of a geostationary orbit is approximately 3R, where R is the radius of the Earth.

Correct Answer: C — 3R

Q. If the radius of the Earth were to double, what would happen to the gravitational acceleration at its surface?

A. It would double
B. It would remain the same
C. It would be halved
D. It would be quartered

Solution

Gravitational acceleration is inversely proportional to the square of the radius, so it would be quartered.

Correct Answer: D — It would be quartered

Q. If the radius of the Earth were to double, what would happen to the gravitational force experienced by a satellite in low Earth orbit?

A. It would double
B. It would remain the same
C. It would decrease to one-fourth
D. It would increase to four times

Solution

The gravitational force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance. If the radius doubles, the force decreases to one-fourth.

Correct Answer: C — It would decrease to one-fourth

Q. If the radius of the Earth were to double, what would happen to the weight of an object on its surface?

A. It would double
B. It would remain the same
C. It would become four times less
D. It would become four times more

Solution

Weight is proportional to 1/r^2; if the radius doubles, the weight becomes four times less.

Correct Answer: C — It would become four times less

Q. If the radius of the Earth were to increase by 50%, what would happen to the weight of an object on its surface?

A. It increases by 50%
B. It increases by 25%
C. It decreases by 25%
D. It remains the same

Solution

Weight is inversely proportional to the square of the radius. If radius increases by 50%, weight decreases by 25%.

Correct Answer: C — It decreases by 25%

Q. If the radius of the Earth were to increase by a factor of 2, what would happen to the gravitational acceleration at its surface?

A. It would double
B. It would remain the same
C. It would halve
D. It would become one-fourth

Solution

Gravitational acceleration is inversely proportional to the square of the radius. If the radius doubles, g becomes 1/(2^2) = 1/4 of the original value.

Correct Answer: C — It would halve

Q. If the radius of the Earth were to increase while keeping its mass constant, what would happen to the gravitational acceleration at its surface?

A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It remains the same
D. It becomes zero

Solution

Gravitational acceleration g = GM/R². If R increases, g decreases.

Correct Answer: B — It decreases

Q. If the radius of the Earth were to increase while keeping its mass constant, what would happen to the value of g? (2023)

A. g increases
B. g decreases
C. g remains the same
D. g becomes zero

Solution

If the radius increases while mass remains constant, g decreases because g = G * M / r^2.

Correct Answer: B — g decreases

Q. If the radius of the Earth were to increase while keeping its mass constant, what would happen to the gravitational acceleration at the surface? (2023)

A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It remains the same
D. It becomes zero

Solution

Gravitational acceleration is inversely proportional to the square of the radius. If radius increases, g decreases.

Correct Answer: B — It decreases

Q. If the radius of the Earth were to shrink to half its size while keeping its mass constant, what would happen to the gravitational acceleration at the surface?

A. It doubles
B. It halves
C. It remains the same
D. It quadruples

Solution

Gravitational acceleration is inversely proportional to the square of the radius. If the radius is halved, g becomes 4 times greater.

Correct Answer: D — It quadruples

Q. If the radius of the orbit of a satellite is doubled, what happens to its orbital speed?

A. It remains the same
B. It doubles
C. It increases by a factor of √2
D. It decreases by a factor of √2

Solution

The orbital speed v is given by v = √(GM/r). If r is doubled, v decreases by a factor of √2.

Correct Answer: D — It decreases by a factor of √2

Q. If the Rajya Sabha has 12 members nominated by the President and the total number of members is 245, what percentage of the Rajya Sabha is nominated?

A. 4.89%
B. 5.00%
C. 6.12%
D. 7.14%

Solution

Percentage of nominated members = (12/245) * 100 = 4.89%.

Correct Answer: B — 5.00%

Q. If the Rajya Sabha has 12 members nominated by the President and the total number of members is 245, what percentage of the Rajya Sabha members are nominated?

A. 4.89%
B. 5.00%
C. 6.12%
D. 7.14%

Solution

Percentage of nominated members = (12 / 245) * 100 = 4.89%.

Correct Answer: B — 5.00%

Q. If the Rajya Sabha has 12 members nominated by the President and the total number of members is 245, how many members are elected? (2019)

A. 233
B. 235
C. 240
D. 250

Solution

Total members in Rajya Sabha = 245. Nominated members = 12. Therefore, elected members = 245 - 12 = 233.

Correct Answer: A — 233

Q. If the Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members and the total number of members is 245, what percentage of the Rajya Sabha members are nominated?

A. 4.89%
B. 5.00%
C. 6.12%
D. 7.14%

Solution

Percentage of nominated members = (12 / 245) * 100 = 4.89%.

Correct Answer: B — 5.00%

Q. If the Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members and the total number of members is 245, how many are elected?

A. 233
B. 232
C. 230
D. 240

Solution

Elected members = Total members - Nominated members = 245 - 12 = 233.

Correct Answer: A — 233

Q. If the Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members and the total number of members is 245, what percentage of the Rajya Sabha is nominated?

A. 4.89%
B. 5.00%
C. 6.12%
D. 7.14%

Solution

Percentage of nominated members = (12/245) * 100 = 4.89%.

Correct Answer: B — 5.00%

Q. If the Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members and the total number of members is 245, how many members are elected?

A. 233
B. 232
C. 230
D. 240

Solution

Total members = 245, Nominated members = 12. Therefore, Elected members = 245 - 12 = 233.

Correct Answer: A — 233

Q. If the Rajya Sabha has 245 members and 12 are nominated, what fraction of the members are elected? (2019)

A. 1/20
B. 1/10
C. 1/5
D. 1/4

Solution

Elected members = 245 - 12 = 233. Fraction = 233/245 = 1/5 (approx)

Correct Answer: C — 1/5

Q. If the Rajya Sabha has 245 members and 50% are from the ruling party, how many members are from the ruling party? (2023)

A. 120
B. 122
C. 125
D. 130

Solution

50% of 245 = 0.5 * 245 = 122. Therefore, 122 members are from the ruling party.

Correct Answer: B — 122

Q. If the range of a data set is 15 and the minimum value is 5, what is the maximum value?

A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

Solution

Range = Maximum - Minimum. Therefore, Maximum = Range + Minimum = 15 + 5 = 20.

Correct Answer: C — 20

Q. If the range of a data set is 20 and the minimum value is 10, what is the maximum value? (2023)

A. 30
B. 20
C. 10
D. 40

Solution

Range = Maximum - Minimum. Therefore, Maximum = Range + Minimum = 20 + 10 = 30.

Correct Answer: A — 30

Q. If the range of a data set is 20 and the minimum value is 5, what is the maximum value? (2023)

A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30

Solution

Range = Maximum - Minimum. Therefore, Maximum = Range + Minimum = 20 + 5 = 25.

Correct Answer: C — 25

Q. If the ranking of students is as follows: A is ranked 1st, B is ranked 2nd, C is ranked 3rd, and D is ranked 4th. If E is added and ranks 3rd, what will be the new ranking of C?

A. 2nd
B. 3rd
C. 4th
D. 5th

Solution

If E is added and ranks 3rd, C will drop to 4th position.

Correct Answer: C — 4th

Q. If the rate of a reaction doubles when the temperature increases by 10°C, what is the approximate activation energy? (2020)

A. 20 kJ/mol
B. 40 kJ/mol
C. 60 kJ/mol
D. 80 kJ/mol

Solution

Using the Arrhenius equation, if the rate doubles for a 10°C increase, Ea is approximately 40 kJ/mol.

Correct Answer: B — 40 kJ/mol

Q. If the rate of a reaction doubles when the temperature is increased by 10°C, what is the approximate activation energy (Ea) of the reaction?

A. 20 kJ/mol
B. 40 kJ/mol
C. 60 kJ/mol
D. 80 kJ/mol

Solution

Using the Arrhenius equation, a rule of thumb states that for every 10°C increase in temperature, the rate doubles if Ea is around 40 kJ/mol.

Correct Answer: B — 40 kJ/mol

Q. If the rate of a reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of one reactant raised to the power of 3, what is the order of the reaction? (2023)

A. Zero
B. First
C. Second
D. Third

Solution

The order of the reaction is third because the rate is proportional to the concentration raised to the power of 3.

Correct Answer: D — Third

Q. If the rate of a reaction is given by rate = k[A]², what is the order of the reaction? (2021)

A. Zero
B. First
C. Second
D. Third

Solution

The reaction is second-order because the rate depends on the square of the concentration of A.

Correct Answer: C — Second

Q. If the rate of change of current in an inductor is 2 A/s, what is the induced EMF if the inductance is 3 H?

A. 6 V
B. 3 V
C. 2 V
D. 1 V

Solution

Induced EMF (ε) = -L(dI/dt) = -3 H * 2 A/s = -6 V.

Correct Answer: A — 6 V

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