Engineering & Architecture Admissions MCQ & Objective Questions
Engineering & Architecture Admissions play a crucial role in shaping the future of aspiring students in India. With the increasing competition in entrance exams, mastering MCQs and objective questions is essential for effective exam preparation. Practicing these types of questions not only enhances concept clarity but also boosts confidence, helping students score better in their exams.
What You Will Practise Here
Key concepts in Engineering Mathematics
Fundamentals of Physics relevant to architecture and engineering
Important definitions and terminologies in engineering disciplines
Essential formulas for solving objective questions
Diagrams and illustrations for better understanding
Conceptual theories related to structural engineering
Analysis of previous years' important questions
Exam Relevance
The topics covered under Engineering & Architecture Admissions are highly relevant for various examinations such as CBSE, State Boards, NEET, and JEE. Students can expect to encounter MCQs that test their understanding of core concepts, application of formulas, and analytical skills. Common question patterns include multiple-choice questions that require selecting the correct answer from given options, as well as assertion-reason type questions that assess deeper comprehension.
Common Mistakes Students Make
Misinterpreting the question stem, leading to incorrect answers.
Overlooking units in numerical problems, which can change the outcome.
Confusing similar concepts or terms, especially in definitions.
Neglecting to review diagrams, which are often crucial for solving problems.
Rushing through practice questions without understanding the underlying concepts.
FAQs
Question: What are the best ways to prepare for Engineering & Architecture Admissions MCQs?Answer: Regular practice of objective questions, reviewing key concepts, and taking mock tests can significantly enhance your preparation.
Question: How can I improve my accuracy in solving MCQs?Answer: Focus on understanding the concepts thoroughly, practice regularly, and learn to eliminate incorrect options to improve accuracy.
Start your journey towards success by solving practice MCQs today! Test your understanding and strengthen your knowledge in Engineering & Architecture Admissions to excel in your exams.
Q. Which of the following is true about a saturated solution?
A.
It contains more solute than can dissolve
B.
It contains less solute than can dissolve
C.
It is always at boiling point
D.
It is always at freezing point
Show solution
Solution
A saturated solution contains the maximum amount of solute that can dissolve at a given temperature.
Correct Answer:
A
— It contains more solute than can dissolve
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Q. Which of the following is true about an exothermic reaction?
A.
ΔH is positive
B.
ΔH is negative
C.
ΔH is zero
D.
ΔH can be either positive or negative
Show solution
Solution
In an exothermic reaction, the enthalpy change (ΔH) is negative because heat is released.
Correct Answer:
B
— ΔH is negative
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Q. Which of the following is true about elastic potential energy stored in a stretched wire?
A.
It is proportional to the square of the elongation
B.
It is proportional to the elongation
C.
It is independent of the elongation
D.
It is inversely proportional to the elongation
Show solution
Solution
The elastic potential energy stored in a stretched wire is given by U = (1/2) * Y * (ΔL^2 / L), which is proportional to the square of the elongation.
Correct Answer:
A
— It is proportional to the square of the elongation
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Q. Which of the following is true about significant figures?
A.
All zeros are significant
B.
Leading zeros are significant
C.
Trailing zeros in a whole number are significant
D.
Trailing zeros in a decimal are significant
Show solution
Solution
Trailing zeros in a decimal are significant.
Correct Answer:
D
— Trailing zeros in a decimal are significant
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Q. Which of the following is true about the entropy of a system?
A.
It always decreases.
B.
It is a measure of disorder.
C.
It is independent of temperature.
D.
It can never increase.
Show solution
Solution
Entropy is a measure of disorder in a system, and it tends to increase in spontaneous processes.
Correct Answer:
B
— It is a measure of disorder.
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Q. Which of the following is true about the escape velocity from the surface of the Earth?
A.
It is independent of the mass of the object
B.
It is dependent on the mass of the Earth
C.
It is dependent on the radius of the Earth
D.
All of the above
Show solution
Solution
Escape velocity is independent of the mass of the object, but it depends on the mass and radius of the Earth.
Correct Answer:
D
— All of the above
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Q. Which of the following is true about the Freundlich adsorption isotherm?
A.
It applies only to monolayer adsorption
B.
It is applicable to heterogeneous surfaces
C.
It assumes a fixed number of adsorption sites
D.
It is a linear isotherm
Show solution
Solution
The Freundlich adsorption isotherm is applicable to heterogeneous surfaces and describes multilayer adsorption.
Correct Answer:
B
— It is applicable to heterogeneous surfaces
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Q. Which of the following is true about the Gibbs free energy change (ΔG) for a spontaneous process?
A.
ΔG > 0
B.
ΔG < 0
C.
ΔG = 0
D.
ΔG is always positive
Show solution
Solution
For a spontaneous process, the Gibbs free energy change (ΔG) is less than 0 (ΔG < 0).
Correct Answer:
B
— ΔG < 0
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Q. Which of the following is true about the Gibbs free energy change (ΔG)?
A.
ΔG < 0 indicates a spontaneous process
B.
ΔG > 0 indicates a spontaneous process
C.
ΔG = 0 indicates a non-spontaneous process
D.
ΔG is always positive
Show solution
Solution
A negative Gibbs free energy change (ΔG < 0) indicates that the process is spontaneous.
Correct Answer:
A
— ΔG < 0 indicates a spontaneous process
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Q. Which of the following is true about the heat capacity of a substance?
A.
It is always constant
B.
It depends on the amount of substance
C.
It is independent of temperature
D.
It is the same for all substances
Show solution
Solution
Heat capacity depends on the amount of substance; it is not a constant value.
Correct Answer:
B
— It depends on the amount of substance
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Q. Which of the following is true about the number 2500?
A.
It has 2 significant figures
B.
It has 3 significant figures
C.
It has 4 significant figures
D.
It has infinite significant figures
Show solution
Solution
2500 has 2 significant figures unless specified with a decimal point.
Correct Answer:
A
— It has 2 significant figures
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Q. Which of the following is true about the period of a satellite in a low Earth orbit compared to a satellite in a geostationary orbit?
A.
The period is longer for the low Earth orbit
B.
The period is shorter for the low Earth orbit
C.
The periods are the same
D.
The period depends on the satellite's mass
Show solution
Solution
A satellite in a low Earth orbit has a shorter orbital period compared to a geostationary satellite due to its closer proximity to Earth.
Correct Answer:
B
— The period is shorter for the low Earth orbit
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Q. Which of the following is true about the period of a satellite in a low Earth orbit compared to a satellite in a high Earth orbit?
A.
The period is longer for low Earth orbit
B.
The period is shorter for low Earth orbit
C.
The periods are the same
D.
It depends on the satellite's mass
Show solution
Solution
The period of a satellite in a low Earth orbit is shorter than that of a satellite in a high Earth orbit due to the stronger gravitational pull.
Correct Answer:
B
— The period is shorter for low Earth orbit
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Q. Which of the following is true for a satellite in a low Earth orbit?
A.
It has a very high orbital speed
B.
It has a very low orbital speed
C.
It does not experience any gravitational force
D.
It is not affected by atmospheric drag
Show solution
Solution
A satellite in a low Earth orbit has a very high orbital speed due to the proximity to the Earth and the gravitational pull.
Correct Answer:
A
— It has a very high orbital speed
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Q. Which of the following is true for all angles A?
A.
sin^2 A + cos^2 A = 1
B.
tan A = sin A/cos A
C.
sec A = 1/cos A
D.
All of the above
Show solution
Solution
All the given identities are true for all angles A.
Correct Answer:
D
— All of the above
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Q. Which of the following is true for an endothermic reaction?
A.
Heat is released
B.
ΔH is negative
C.
ΔH is positive
D.
The reaction is spontaneous
Show solution
Solution
In an endothermic reaction, heat is absorbed, resulting in a positive ΔH.
Correct Answer:
C
— ΔH is positive
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Q. Which of the following lanthanides is used in making strong permanent magnets?
A.
Cerium
B.
Neodymium
C.
Samarium
D.
Europium
Show solution
Solution
Neodymium is used in making strong permanent magnets due to its magnetic properties.
Correct Answer:
B
— Neodymium
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Q. Which of the following ligands is a strong field ligand?
A.
I-
B.
Br-
C.
CN-
D.
Cl-
Show solution
Solution
CN- is a strong field ligand and causes a large splitting of d-orbitals, leading to low-spin complexes.
Correct Answer:
C
— CN-
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Q. Which of the following lines is parallel to the line 4x - 5y + 10 = 0?
A.
y = (4/5)x + 2
B.
y = (5/4)x - 1
C.
y = (4/5)x - 3
D.
y = (-5/4)x + 1
Show solution
Solution
The slope of the given line is 4/5. A line parallel to it must have the same slope, hence y = (4/5)x - 3.
Correct Answer:
C
— y = (4/5)x - 3
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Q. Which of the following liquids has the highest boiling point?
A.
Ethanol
B.
Water
C.
Benzene
D.
Hexane
Show solution
Solution
Water has a higher boiling point due to strong hydrogen bonding.
Correct Answer:
B
— Water
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Q. Which of the following liquids has the highest surface tension at room temperature?
A.
Water
B.
Ethanol
C.
Mercury
D.
Benzene
Show solution
Solution
Mercury has a very high surface tension due to strong cohesive forces between its molecules, higher than that of water, ethanol, and benzene.
Correct Answer:
C
— Mercury
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Q. Which of the following liquids has the highest surface tension?
A.
Water
B.
Ethanol
C.
Benzene
D.
Mercury
Show solution
Solution
Mercury has the highest surface tension due to strong cohesive forces.
Correct Answer:
D
— Mercury
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Q. Which of the following liquids has the highest viscosity?
A.
Water
B.
Glycerol
C.
Ethanol
D.
Acetone
Show solution
Solution
Glycerol is a thick liquid and has a higher viscosity compared to the others.
Correct Answer:
B
— Glycerol
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Q. Which of the following liquids has the lowest boiling point?
A.
Water
B.
Ethanol
C.
Benzene
D.
Hexane
Show solution
Solution
Benzene has a lower boiling point compared to water, ethanol, and hexane.
Correct Answer:
C
— Benzene
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Q. Which of the following liquids is an example of a non-polar liquid?
A.
Water
B.
Ethanol
C.
Benzene
D.
Acetic acid
Show solution
Solution
Benzene is a non-polar liquid, while the others are polar.
Correct Answer:
C
— Benzene
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Q. Which of the following liquids is considered a non-polar solvent?
A.
Water
B.
Ethanol
C.
Hexane
D.
Acetic acid
Show solution
Solution
Hexane is a non-polar solvent, while the others are polar.
Correct Answer:
C
— Hexane
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Q. Which of the following liquids is most likely to exhibit strong hydrogen bonding?
A.
Hexane
B.
Ethanol
C.
Chloroform
D.
Acetone
Show solution
Solution
Ethanol can form strong hydrogen bonds due to the presence of an -OH group.
Correct Answer:
B
— Ethanol
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Q. Which of the following liquids would have the lowest surface tension?
A.
Water
B.
Mercury
C.
Ethanol
D.
Oil
Show solution
Solution
Ethanol has a lower surface tension compared to water and mercury due to its molecular structure.
Correct Answer:
C
— Ethanol
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Q. Which of the following materials can be used to polarize light?
A.
Glass
B.
Polaroid film
C.
Water
D.
Air
Show solution
Solution
Polaroid film is specifically designed to polarize light by allowing only light waves oscillating in a certain direction to pass through.
Correct Answer:
B
— Polaroid film
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Q. Which of the following materials has the highest resistivity?
A.
Copper
B.
Aluminum
C.
Silver
D.
Rubber
Show solution
Solution
Rubber is an insulator and has a much higher resistivity compared to metals like copper, aluminum, and silver.
Correct Answer:
D
— Rubber
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