Law & Legal Studies MCQ & Objective Questions
Law & Legal Studies is a crucial subject for students aiming to excel in their exams. Understanding legal principles not only enhances your knowledge but also equips you with the skills needed to tackle various objective questions effectively. Practicing MCQs and important questions in this field can significantly boost your exam preparation and help you score better.
What You Will Practise Here
Fundamental Rights and Duties
Legal Terminology and Definitions
Types of Laws: Civil, Criminal, and Constitutional
Judicial System and Hierarchy
Important Legal Principles and Theories
Case Studies and Landmark Judgments
Legal Procedures and Processes
Exam Relevance
Law & Legal Studies is a significant part of the curriculum for CBSE, State Boards, and various competitive exams like NEET and JEE. Questions often focus on definitions, legal principles, and landmark cases. Common patterns include scenario-based questions, true or false statements, and direct questions that test your understanding of legal concepts. Mastery of this subject can give you an edge in your exam performance.
Common Mistakes Students Make
Confusing similar legal terms and their applications.
Overlooking the importance of case studies in understanding legal principles.
Neglecting to practice MCQs, leading to a lack of familiarity with question formats.
Misinterpreting questions due to lack of clarity in legal language.
FAQs
Question: What are the key areas to focus on in Law & Legal Studies for exams?Answer: Focus on fundamental rights, types of laws, and landmark judgments, as these are frequently tested.
Question: How can I improve my performance in Law & Legal Studies MCQs?Answer: Regular practice of objective questions and understanding key concepts will enhance your performance significantly.
Start solving practice MCQs today to test your understanding and solidify your knowledge in Law & Legal Studies. Your success in exams is just a question away!
Q. The Directive Principles of State Policy are primarily aimed at promoting which of the following?
A.
Fundamental Rights
B.
Social and Economic Justice
C.
Judicial Independence
D.
Political Rights
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Solution
The Directive Principles of State Policy are aimed at promoting social and economic justice.
Correct Answer:
B
— Social and Economic Justice
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Q. The Directive Principles of State Policy are primarily:
A.
Justiciable
B.
Non-justiciable
C.
Enforceable in a court of law
D.
Mandatory for all states
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Solution
The Directive Principles of State Policy are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by the courts.
Correct Answer:
B
— Non-justiciable
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Q. The Directive Principles of State Policy were inspired by which country's constitution?
A.
United States
B.
Ireland
C.
Canada
D.
Australia
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Solution
The Directive Principles of State Policy were inspired by the Constitution of Ireland.
Correct Answer:
B
— Ireland
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Q. The Directive Principles of State Policy were inspired by which international document?
A.
Universal Declaration of Human Rights
B.
American Constitution
C.
Irish Constitution
D.
British Magna Carta
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Solution
The Directive Principles of State Policy were inspired by the Irish Constitution.
Correct Answer:
C
— Irish Constitution
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Q. Under IPC, which of the following is a general exception?
A.
Mistake of fact
B.
Intention
C.
Mens rea
D.
Actus reus
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Solution
Mistake of fact is a general exception under Section 76 of the IPC.
Correct Answer:
A
— Mistake of fact
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Q. Under IPC, which section deals with the punishment for causing death by negligence?
A.
Section 304A
B.
Section 299
C.
Section 300
D.
Section 302
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Solution
Section 304A of the IPC prescribes punishment for causing death by negligence.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 304A
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Q. Under IPC, which section provides for the right of private defense?
A.
Section 96
B.
Section 100
C.
Section 103
D.
Section 105
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Solution
IPC Section 96 states that nothing is an offense which is done in the exercise of the right of private defense.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 96
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Q. Under the Transfer of Property Act, what is required for a valid contract concerning the sale of property?
A.
Written agreement
B.
Registration of the contract
C.
Payment of consideration
D.
All of the above
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Solution
A valid contract for the sale of property requires a written agreement, registration, and payment of consideration.
Correct Answer:
D
— All of the above
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Q. Under which section can a person apply for anticipatory bail?
A.
Section 438
B.
Section 437
C.
Section 439
D.
Section 440
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Solution
Section 438 of the Criminal Procedure Code allows a person to apply for anticipatory bail to avoid arrest in a non-bailable offense.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 438
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Q. Under which section can a police officer enter a place without a warrant during an investigation?
A.
Section 151
B.
Section 154
C.
Section 165
D.
Section 170
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Solution
Section 165 allows a police officer to enter a place without a warrant during an investigation if they believe it is necessary.
Correct Answer:
C
— Section 165
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Q. Under which section of the Criminal Procedure Code can a police officer arrest without a warrant?
A.
Section 41
B.
Section 154
C.
Section 160
D.
Section 173
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Solution
Section 41 of the Criminal Procedure Code allows a police officer to arrest without a warrant in certain circumstances, particularly when a cognizable offense is committed.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 41
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Q. Under which section of the IPC is the concept of 'culpable homicide' defined?
A.
Section 299
B.
Section 300
C.
Section 304
D.
Section 306
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Solution
Culpable homicide is defined under Section 299 of the Indian Penal Code.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 299
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Q. Under which section of the IPC is the concept of 'General Exceptions' primarily discussed?
A.
Section 76
B.
Section 84
C.
Section 100
D.
Section 300
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Solution
General Exceptions are primarily discussed in Sections 76 to 106 of the IPC, with Section 76 specifically addressing acts done in good faith.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 76
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Q. Under which section of the IPC is the punishment for murder defined?
A.
Section 299
B.
Section 300
C.
Section 302
D.
Section 304
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Solution
Section 302 of the IPC prescribes the punishment for murder.
Correct Answer:
C
— Section 302
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Q. What constitutes a breach of contract?
A.
Failure to perform as specified in the contract
B.
Negotiating a better deal
C.
Changing the terms of the contract unilaterally
D.
All of the above
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Solution
A breach of contract occurs when a party fails to perform as specified in the contract.
Correct Answer:
A
— Failure to perform as specified in the contract
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Q. What constitutes consideration in a contract under the Transfer of Property Act?
A.
A promise to do something
B.
A promise to refrain from doing something
C.
A benefit to one party or a detriment to another
D.
All of the above
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Solution
Consideration can be a promise to do something, a promise to refrain from doing something, or a benefit/detriment to the parties involved.
Correct Answer:
D
— All of the above
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Q. What does 'performance' refer to in contract law?
A.
The act of fulfilling contractual obligations.
B.
The negotiation process.
C.
The drafting of the contract.
D.
The signing of the contract.
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Solution
Performance refers to the act of fulfilling the obligations set forth in a contract.
Correct Answer:
A
— The act of fulfilling contractual obligations.
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Q. What does 'specific performance' mean in the context of contract law?
A.
Monetary compensation for damages
B.
A court order to fulfill the contract
C.
Cancellation of the contract
D.
Modification of the contract terms
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Solution
Specific performance is a court order requiring a party to fulfill their contractual obligations.
Correct Answer:
B
— A court order to fulfill the contract
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Q. What does Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantee?
A.
Right to equality
B.
Right to freedom of speech and expression
C.
Right to life
D.
Right to constitutional remedies
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Solution
Article 19 guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression, along with other freedoms such as assembly and association.
Correct Answer:
B
— Right to freedom of speech and expression
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Q. What does Article 21 of the Constitution guarantee?
A.
Right to equality
B.
Right to life and personal liberty
C.
Right to freedom of speech
D.
Right to education
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Solution
Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which has been interpreted broadly by the Supreme Court.
Correct Answer:
B
— Right to life and personal liberty
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Q. What does Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantee?
A.
Right to education
B.
Right to life and personal liberty
C.
Right to property
D.
Right to freedom of religion
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Solution
Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which has been interpreted broadly by the Supreme Court.
Correct Answer:
B
— Right to life and personal liberty
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Q. What does Section 154 of the Criminal Procedure Code pertain to?
A.
Filing of FIR
B.
Bail procedures
C.
Trial procedures
D.
Appeals
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Solution
Section 154 pertains to the filing of a First Information Report (FIR) by the police upon receiving information about a cognizable offense.
Correct Answer:
A
— Filing of FIR
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Q. What does Section 80 of the IPC state regarding accidents?
A.
Accidental acts are punishable
B.
Accidental acts are not punishable
C.
All acts are punishable
D.
Only intentional acts are punishable
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Solution
Section 80 of the IPC states that an act done by accident is not punishable.
Correct Answer:
B
— Accidental acts are not punishable
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Q. What does Section 84 of the IPC state regarding insanity?
A.
A person of unsound mind is not liable for an offense
B.
A person can be punished if they are insane
C.
Insanity is not a defense in criminal law
D.
Only partial insanity is considered
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Solution
Section 84 of the IPC states that a person of unsound mind is not liable for an offense.
Correct Answer:
A
— A person of unsound mind is not liable for an offense
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Q. What does Section 84 of the IPC state regarding the liability of a person?
A.
Liability for acts done under duress
B.
Liability for acts done in a state of intoxication
C.
Liability for acts done by a person of unsound mind
D.
Liability for acts done in self-defense
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Solution
Section 84 states that a person of unsound mind is not liable for any act committed by them, as they cannot understand the nature of the act.
Correct Answer:
C
— Liability for acts done by a person of unsound mind
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Q. What does the First Amendment protect?
A.
Right to bear arms
B.
Freedom of speech, religion, press, assembly, and petition
C.
Right to a fair trial
D.
Protection against unreasonable searches and seizures
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Solution
The First Amendment protects the freedoms of speech, religion, press, assembly, and petition.
Correct Answer:
B
— Freedom of speech, religion, press, assembly, and petition
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Q. What does the term 'basic structure' refer to in constitutional law?
A.
The fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution
B.
The essential features of the Constitution that cannot be amended
C.
The structure of the government as defined in the Constitution
D.
The procedural aspects of amending the Constitution
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Solution
The term 'basic structure' refers to the essential features of the Constitution that cannot be amended or altered by any legislative action.
Correct Answer:
B
— The essential features of the Constitution that cannot be amended
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Q. What does the term 'due process' refer to in the Constitution?
A.
The right to bear arms
B.
The legal requirement that the state must respect all legal rights owed to a person
C.
The right to free speech
D.
The right to assemble peacefully
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Solution
Due process refers to the legal requirement that the state must respect all legal rights owed to a person.
Correct Answer:
B
— The legal requirement that the state must respect all legal rights owed to a person
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Q. What does the term 'tort' refer to in legal studies?
A.
A breach of contract
B.
A wrongful act leading to civil legal liability
C.
A criminal offense
D.
A type of business entity
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Solution
A tort refers to a wrongful act that causes harm or loss to another, leading to civil legal liability.
Correct Answer:
B
— A wrongful act leading to civil legal liability
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Q. What happens if a contract is breached?
A.
The contract is automatically void
B.
The breaching party must pay damages
C.
The contract remains valid
D.
The non-breaching party must continue performance
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Solution
If a contract is breached, the breaching party is typically liable for damages.
Correct Answer:
B
— The breaching party must pay damages
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