Q. Which of the following drugs can cause a significant interaction with lithium, leading to increased lithium levels?
A.
Thiazide diuretics
B.
Beta-blockers
C.
ACE inhibitors
D.
Calcium channel blockers
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Solution
Thiazide diuretics can decrease renal clearance of lithium, leading to increased lithium levels and potential toxicity.
Correct Answer:
A
— Thiazide diuretics
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Q. Which of the following drugs is known to interact with warfarin and increase its anticoagulant effect?
A.
Rifampin
B.
Amiodarone
C.
Carbamazepine
D.
Phenobarbital
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Solution
Amiodarone is known to increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin by inhibiting its metabolism.
Correct Answer:
B
— Amiodarone
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Q. Which of the following factors can influence the onset of postmortem changes?
A.
Age of the deceased
B.
Cause of death
C.
Environmental conditions
D.
All of the above
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Solution
All of the above factors can influence the onset and progression of postmortem changes.
Correct Answer:
D
— All of the above
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Q. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of viral infections?
A.
Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition
B.
Lysis of host cells
C.
Formation of biofilms
D.
Endotoxin release
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Solution
Viral infections often lead to the lysis of host cells as the virus replicates and releases new virions.
Correct Answer:
B
— Lysis of host cells
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Q. Which of the following is a characteristic histopathological finding in tuberculosis?
A.
Caseating granulomas
B.
Cystic fibrosis
C.
Atypical mitotic figures
D.
Fibrinous necrosis
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Solution
Caseating granulomas are a hallmark of tuberculosis, formed as a response to the infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Correct Answer:
A
— Caseating granulomas
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Q. Which of the following is a characteristic of carcinoma in situ?
A.
Invasive growth
B.
Metastasis
C.
Abnormal cells confined to the epithelium
D.
Desmoplastic reaction
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Solution
Carcinoma in situ is characterized by abnormal cells that are confined to the epithelium and have not invaded surrounding tissues.
Correct Answer:
C
— Abnormal cells confined to the epithelium
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Q. Which of the following is a classic sign of liver cirrhosis?
A.
Jaundice
B.
Hematuria
C.
Polyuria
D.
Pallor
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Solution
Jaundice is a classic sign of liver cirrhosis due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood.
Correct Answer:
A
— Jaundice
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Q. Which of the following is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia?
A.
Staphylococcus aureus
B.
Klebsiella pneumoniae
C.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
D.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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Solution
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, often leading to lobar pneumonia.
Correct Answer:
C
— Streptococcus pneumoniae
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Q. Which of the following is a common complication of untreated streptococcal throat infection?
A.
Rheumatic fever
B.
Chronic bronchitis
C.
Pneumonia
D.
Tuberculosis
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Solution
Untreated streptococcal throat infections can lead to rheumatic fever, an inflammatory disease that can affect the heart, joints, and nervous system.
Correct Answer:
A
— Rheumatic fever
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Q. Which of the following is a common feature of benign tumors?
A.
Infiltrative growth
B.
Capsule formation
C.
High mitotic index
D.
Necrosis
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Solution
Benign tumors typically exhibit capsule formation, which helps to distinguish them from malignant tumors that often invade surrounding tissues.
Correct Answer:
B
— Capsule formation
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Q. Which of the following is a common histological finding in chronic hepatitis?
A.
Ballooning degeneration
B.
Councilman bodies
C.
Lymphocytic infiltration
D.
Fibrinous necrosis
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Solution
Chronic hepatitis is often associated with lymphocytic infiltration in the portal areas and liver parenchyma.
Correct Answer:
C
— Lymphocytic infiltration
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Q. Which of the following is a common laboratory test used to assess inflammation?
A.
Complete blood count
B.
C-reactive protein
C.
Liver function tests
D.
Blood glucose level
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Solution
C-reactive protein (CRP) is a sensitive marker for inflammation and is commonly used in clinical practice.
Correct Answer:
B
— C-reactive protein
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Q. Which of the following is a common laboratory test used to diagnose bacterial meningitis?
A.
Complete blood count
B.
Lumbar puncture and cerebrospinal fluid analysis
C.
Urinalysis
D.
Chest X-ray
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Solution
A lumbar puncture followed by cerebrospinal fluid analysis is the standard laboratory test used to diagnose bacterial meningitis.
Correct Answer:
B
— Lumbar puncture and cerebrospinal fluid analysis
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Q. Which of the following is a common method for inactivating viruses in vaccines?
A.
Heat treatment
B.
Chemical treatment
C.
Radiation
D.
All of the above
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Solution
All of the listed methods can be used to inactivate viruses for vaccine production.
Correct Answer:
D
— All of the above
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Q. Which of the following is a common pathological finding in chronic inflammation?
A.
Neutrophilic infiltration
B.
Granuloma formation
C.
Fibrinous exudate
D.
Necrosis
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Solution
Granuloma formation is a characteristic feature of chronic inflammation, often seen in conditions like tuberculosis.
Correct Answer:
B
— Granuloma formation
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Q. Which of the following is a common postmortem change observed in the liver?
A.
Cirrhosis
B.
Fatty change
C.
Postmortem hypostasis
D.
Hemorrhage
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Solution
Postmortem hypostasis refers to the pooling of blood in the liver, which is a common observation after death.
Correct Answer:
C
— Postmortem hypostasis
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Q. Which of the following is a common side effect of combining NSAIDs with anticoagulants?
A.
Increased risk of thrombosis
B.
Gastrointestinal bleeding
C.
Hypertension
D.
Renal failure
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Solution
Combining NSAIDs with anticoagulants increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding due to the effects of both drug classes on the gastric mucosa.
Correct Answer:
B
— Gastrointestinal bleeding
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Q. Which of the following is a potential consequence of combining anticoagulants with antiplatelet agents?
A.
Increased risk of stroke
B.
Increased risk of bleeding
C.
Decreased efficacy of anticoagulants
D.
Increased risk of thrombosis
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Solution
Combining anticoagulants with antiplatelet agents increases the risk of bleeding due to the additive effects on hemostasis.
Correct Answer:
B
— Increased risk of bleeding
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a common route of metastasis for solid tumors?
A.
Hematogenous spread
B.
Lymphatic spread
C.
Transcoelomic spread
D.
Direct contact spread
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Solution
Direct contact spread is not a common route of metastasis for solid tumors; instead, they typically spread via hematogenous, lymphatic, or transcoelomic routes.
Correct Answer:
D
— Direct contact spread
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting the rate of rigor mortis?
A.
Ambient temperature
B.
Body mass
C.
Time of death
D.
Presence of disease
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Solution
The time of death is not a factor affecting the rate of rigor mortis; rather, it is influenced by temperature, body mass, and other conditions.
Correct Answer:
C
— Time of death
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a feature of acute inflammation?
A.
Vasodilation
B.
Increased vascular permeability
C.
Tissue necrosis
D.
Neutrophil infiltration
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Solution
Tissue necrosis is not a feature of acute inflammation; rather, it can be a consequence of prolonged inflammation or injury.
Correct Answer:
C
— Tissue necrosis
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Q. Which of the following tumors is classified as a sarcoma?
A.
Adenocarcinoma
B.
Osteosarcoma
C.
Basal cell carcinoma
D.
Melanoma
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Solution
Osteosarcoma is classified as a sarcoma, which is a malignant tumor arising from connective tissues, while the others are carcinomas.
Correct Answer:
B
— Osteosarcoma
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Q. Which of the following viruses is associated with the development of cervical cancer?
A.
Hepatitis B virus
B.
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
C.
Cytomegalovirus
D.
Epstein-Barr virus
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Solution
Human papillomavirus (HPV) is strongly associated with the development of cervical cancer.
Correct Answer:
B
— Human papillomavirus (HPV)
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Q. Which organism is most commonly associated with community-acquired pneumonia?
A.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
B.
Escherichia coli
C.
Staphylococcus aureus
D.
Klebsiella pneumoniae
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Solution
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia.
Correct Answer:
A
— Streptococcus pneumoniae
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Q. Which postmortem change can be accelerated by high environmental temperatures?
A.
Rigor mortis
B.
Livor mortis
C.
Algor mortis
D.
Decomposition
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Solution
Decomposition can be accelerated by high environmental temperatures, promoting bacterial growth.
Correct Answer:
D
— Decomposition
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Q. Which postmortem change is characterized by the settling of blood in the dependent parts of the body?
A.
Rigor mortis
B.
Livor mortis
C.
Algor mortis
D.
Decomposition
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Solution
Livor mortis is the pooling of blood due to gravity, leading to a purplish discoloration of the skin.
Correct Answer:
B
— Livor mortis
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Q. Which tumor marker is commonly associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?
A.
CA-125
B.
AFP (Alpha-fetoprotein)
C.
PSA (Prostate-specific antigen)
D.
CEA (Carcinoembryonic antigen)
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Solution
AFP (Alpha-fetoprotein) is a tumor marker commonly associated with hepatocellular carcinoma.
Correct Answer:
B
— AFP (Alpha-fetoprotein)
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Q. Which type of connective tissue is characterized by a gel-like matrix and is found at the ends of long bones?
A.
Fibrocartilage
B.
Elastic cartilage
C.
Hyaline cartilage
D.
Loose connective tissue
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Solution
Hyaline cartilage has a gel-like matrix and provides smooth surfaces for joint movement at the ends of long bones.
Correct Answer:
C
— Hyaline cartilage
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Q. Which type of connective tissue is primarily responsible for energy storage?
A.
Cartilage
B.
Adipose tissue
C.
Bone
D.
Blood
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Solution
Adipose tissue is specialized for energy storage, as it contains adipocytes that store fat.
Correct Answer:
B
— Adipose tissue
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Q. Which type of epithelium is best suited for areas subject to abrasion, such as the skin?
A.
Simple cuboidal epithelium
B.
Stratified squamous epithelium
C.
Simple columnar epithelium
D.
Transitional epithelium
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Solution
Stratified squamous epithelium is designed to protect underlying tissues in areas subject to abrasion, such as the skin.
Correct Answer:
B
— Stratified squamous epithelium
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