Medical Science

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Q. What does a negative ΔG value signify in a biochemical reaction?
  • A. The reaction is at equilibrium
  • B. The reaction is non-spontaneous
  • C. The reaction is spontaneous
  • D. The reaction requires energy input
Q. What does a splitting pattern in an NMR spectrum indicate?
  • A. Presence of impurities
  • B. Number of neighboring protons
  • C. Concentration of the sample
  • D. Type of solvent used
Q. What does FTIR stand for in the context of spectroscopy?
  • A. Fourier Transform Infrared
  • B. Frequency Time Infrared
  • C. Fast Time Infrared
  • D. Fourier Time Infrared
Q. What does HPLC stand for?
  • A. High Performance Liquid Chromatography
  • B. High Pressure Liquid Chromatography
  • C. High Precision Liquid Chromatography
  • D. High Purity Liquid Chromatography
Q. What does Km represent in enzyme kinetics?
  • A. The maximum velocity of the reaction
  • B. The substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half of Vmax
  • C. The rate constant of the reaction
  • D. The enzyme's affinity for the substrate
Q. What does NMR stand for in the context of spectroscopy?
  • A. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
  • B. Nonlinear Molecular Resonance
  • C. Nuclear Mass Resonance
  • D. Neutron Magnetic Resonance
Q. What does the chemical shift in an NMR spectrum indicate?
  • A. Concentration of the sample
  • B. Type of solvent used
  • C. Electronic environment of nuclei
  • D. Temperature of the sample
Q. What does the term 'bioavailability' refer to in pharmacokinetics?
  • A. The rate of drug elimination
  • B. The fraction of an administered dose that reaches systemic circulation
  • C. The volume of distribution of a drug
  • D. The time taken for a drug to exert its effect
Q. What does the term 'incidence' refer to in epidemiology?
  • A. The total number of cases of a disease in a population
  • B. The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific time period
  • C. The number of deaths caused by a disease
  • D. The prevalence of a disease in a population
Q. What does the term 'prevalence' indicate in a population?
  • A. The number of new cases of a disease
  • B. The total number of existing cases of a disease at a specific time
  • C. The number of deaths from a disease
  • D. The rate of disease transmission
Q. What effect does a competitive inhibitor have on enzyme activity?
  • A. Increases Vmax
  • B. Decreases Km
  • C. Increases Km
  • D. Decreases Vmax
Q. What effect does aldosterone have on the kidneys?
  • A. Increases sodium reabsorption
  • B. Decreases potassium reabsorption
  • C. Increases water excretion
  • D. Decreases blood pressure
Q. What effect does an allosteric activator have on enzyme activity?
  • A. Decreases enzyme activity
  • B. Increases enzyme activity
  • C. Has no effect
  • D. Inhibits substrate binding
Q. What effect does citric acid have on the flavor of food?
  • A. Bitter
  • B. Sour
  • C. Sweet
  • D. Savory
Q. What effect does increasing substrate concentration have on enzyme activity, up to a certain point?
  • A. It decreases enzyme activity
  • B. It has no effect
  • C. It increases enzyme activity until saturation
  • D. It permanently denatures the enzyme
Q. What effect does increasing temperature generally have on enzyme activity?
  • A. Increases activity until a certain point
  • B. Decreases activity at all temperatures
  • C. Has no effect on activity
  • D. Increases activity indefinitely
Q. What effect does increasing temperature generally have on protein stability?
  • A. Increases stability
  • B. Decreases stability
  • C. No effect
  • D. Depends on the protein
Q. What effect does increasing the diameter of a blood vessel have on blood flow?
  • A. Decreases flow
  • B. Increases flow
  • C. No effect
  • D. Causes turbulence
Q. What effect does temperature have on immobilized enzyme activity?
  • A. No effect
  • B. Increases activity at all temperatures
  • C. Can denature the enzyme at high temperatures
  • D. Only affects free enzymes
Q. What enzyme is crucial for the replication of Retroviridae viruses?
  • A. DNA polymerase
  • B. RNA polymerase
  • C. Reverse transcriptase
  • D. Ligase
Q. What feature do cloning vectors typically contain to facilitate selection?
  • A. Antibiotic resistance genes
  • B. Introns
  • C. Exons
  • D. Promoters
Q. What happens during the G0 phase?
  • A. Cells prepare for division
  • B. Cells exit the cell cycle and enter a quiescent state
  • C. Cells undergo DNA replication
  • D. Cells actively divide
Q. What happens to an enzyme when it is denatured?
  • A. It becomes more active
  • B. It loses its functional shape
  • C. It increases its substrate affinity
  • D. It becomes a cofactor
Q. What happens to enzymes at high temperatures?
  • A. They become more active
  • B. They denature and lose function
  • C. They remain unchanged
  • D. They increase substrate affinity
Q. What happens when lactose is present in the environment of E. coli?
  • A. The lac repressor binds to the operator
  • B. Transcription of the lac operon is inhibited
  • C. The lac repressor is inactivated
  • D. cAMP levels decrease
Q. What histological feature is commonly associated with high-grade tumors?
  • A. Well-differentiated cells
  • B. Increased mitotic activity
  • C. Presence of necrosis
  • D. All of the above
Q. What hormone is secreted by the pancreas to raise blood glucose levels?
  • A. Insulin
  • B. Glucagon
  • C. Somatostatin
  • D. Cortisol
Q. What is a bacteriophage?
  • A. A type of bacteria
  • B. A virus that infects bacteria
  • C. A fungal organism
  • D. A type of antibiotic
Q. What is a cofactor in enzyme reactions?
  • A. A type of substrate
  • B. A non-protein molecule that assists enzyme function
  • C. An inhibitor of enzyme activity
  • D. A product of the enzyme reaction
Q. What is a common adverse effect associated with the use of aminoglycosides?
  • A. Nephrotoxicity
  • B. Hepatotoxicity
  • C. Ototoxicity
  • D. Cardiotoxicity
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