Major Competitive Exams MCQ & Objective Questions
Major Competitive Exams play a crucial role in shaping the academic and professional futures of students in India. These exams not only assess knowledge but also test problem-solving skills and time management. Practicing MCQs and objective questions is essential for scoring better, as they help in familiarizing students with the exam format and identifying important questions that frequently appear in tests.
What You Will Practise Here
Key concepts and theories related to major subjects
Important formulas and their applications
Definitions of critical terms and terminologies
Diagrams and illustrations to enhance understanding
Practice questions that mirror actual exam patterns
Strategies for solving objective questions efficiently
Time management techniques for competitive exams
Exam Relevance
The topics covered under Major Competitive Exams are integral to various examinations such as CBSE, State Boards, NEET, and JEE. Students can expect to encounter a mix of conceptual and application-based questions that require a solid understanding of the subjects. Common question patterns include multiple-choice questions that test both knowledge and analytical skills, making it essential to be well-prepared with practice MCQs.
Common Mistakes Students Make
Rushing through questions without reading them carefully
Overlooking the negative marking scheme in MCQs
Confusing similar concepts or terms
Neglecting to review previous years’ question papers
Failing to manage time effectively during the exam
FAQs
Question: How can I improve my performance in Major Competitive Exams?Answer: Regular practice of MCQs and understanding key concepts will significantly enhance your performance.
Question: What types of questions should I focus on for these exams?Answer: Concentrate on important Major Competitive Exams questions that frequently appear in past papers and mock tests.
Question: Are there specific strategies for tackling objective questions?Answer: Yes, practicing under timed conditions and reviewing mistakes can help develop effective strategies.
Start your journey towards success by solving practice MCQs today! Test your understanding and build confidence for your upcoming exams. Remember, consistent practice is the key to mastering Major Competitive Exams!
Q. If a material has a Young's modulus of 200 GPa, what does this indicate?
A.
It is very elastic
B.
It is very brittle
C.
It is very ductile
D.
It is very plastic
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Solution
A high Young's modulus indicates that the material is very elastic.
Correct Answer:
A
— It is very elastic
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Q. If a material is stretched beyond its elastic limit, what happens?
A.
It returns to its original shape
B.
It undergoes permanent deformation
C.
It becomes stronger
D.
It becomes weaker
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Solution
When a material is stretched beyond its elastic limit, it undergoes permanent deformation and does not return to its original shape.
Correct Answer:
B
— It undergoes permanent deformation
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Q. If a matrix has more columns than rows, it is called a: (2022)
A.
Row matrix
B.
Column matrix
C.
Rectangular matrix
D.
Square matrix
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Solution
A matrix with more columns than rows is referred to as a rectangular matrix.
Correct Answer:
C
— Rectangular matrix
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Q. If a matrix is both upper triangular and lower triangular, what type of matrix is it? (2020)
A.
Zero matrix
B.
Identity matrix
C.
Diagonal matrix
D.
Square matrix
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Solution
A matrix that is both upper and lower triangular must have non-zero elements only on the diagonal, making it a diagonal matrix.
Correct Answer:
C
— Diagonal matrix
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Q. If a matrix is diagonal, what can be said about its non-diagonal elements? (2020)
A.
They are all zero
B.
They are all one
C.
They can be any value
D.
They are negative
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Solution
In a diagonal matrix, all non-diagonal elements are zero.
Correct Answer:
A
— They are all zero
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Q. If a matrix is diagonal, which of the following must be true? (2020)
A.
All elements are zero
B.
Only diagonal elements are non-zero
C.
All elements are equal
D.
It is a square matrix
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Solution
A diagonal matrix has non-zero elements only on its main diagonal, while all other elements are zero.
Correct Answer:
B
— Only diagonal elements are non-zero
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Q. If a matrix is said to be orthogonal, what property does it have?
A.
All elements are zero
B.
Transpose is equal to its inverse
C.
All diagonal elements are equal
D.
It is a square matrix
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Solution
An orthogonal matrix is defined as a square matrix whose transpose is equal to its inverse.
Correct Answer:
B
— Transpose is equal to its inverse
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Q. If a matrix is said to be skew-symmetric, what must be true about its elements? (2023)
A.
All elements are zero
B.
a_ij = -a_ji
C.
a_ij = a_ji
D.
All diagonal elements are zero
Show solution
Solution
A skew-symmetric matrix satisfies the condition a_ij = -a_ji for all i and j.
Correct Answer:
B
— a_ij = -a_ji
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Q. If a matrix is symmetric, what can be said about its elements? (2021)
A.
Aij = Aji
B.
Aij = -Aji
C.
Aij = 0
D.
Aij = Aii
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Solution
A symmetric matrix satisfies the condition Aij = Aji for all i and j.
Correct Answer:
A
— Aij = Aji
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Q. If a matrix is symmetric, what property does it have?
A.
A = A^T
B.
A = -A
C.
A^2 = I
D.
A = 0
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Solution
A symmetric matrix is defined by the property A = A^T, meaning it is equal to its transpose.
Correct Answer:
A
— A = A^T
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Q. If a matrix is symmetric, which of the following must be true? (2021)
A.
A = A^T
B.
A = -A^T
C.
A^2 = I
D.
A^T = 0
Show solution
Solution
A matrix A is symmetric if it is equal to its transpose, i.e., A = A^T.
Correct Answer:
A
— A = A^T
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Q. If a meal contains 40 grams of carbohydrates, 10 grams of protein, and 5 grams of fat, how many total calories does it provide? (Carbohydrates = 4 cal/g, Protein = 4 cal/g, Fat = 9 cal/g)
A.
210 calories
B.
230 calories
C.
250 calories
D.
270 calories
Show solution
Solution
Total calories = (40g * 4) + (10g * 4) + (5g * 9) = 160 + 40 + 45 = 245 calories.
Correct Answer:
B
— 230 calories
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Q. If a meal contains 50 grams of carbohydrates, 20 grams of protein, and 10 grams of fat, what is the total caloric value of the meal? (Carbohydrates = 4 cal/g, Protein = 4 cal/g, Fat = 9 cal/g) (2023)
A.
320 calories
B.
350 calories
C.
370 calories
D.
400 calories
Show solution
Solution
Total calories = (50g * 4) + (20g * 4) + (10g * 9) = 200 + 80 + 90 = 370 calories.
Correct Answer:
C
— 370 calories
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Q. If a measurement has a relative error of 5%, what does this indicate? (2022)
A.
The measurement is very accurate
B.
The measurement is very precise
C.
The measurement is off by 5% of the true value
D.
The measurement is exact
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Solution
A relative error of 5% indicates that the measurement is off by 5% of the true value.
Correct Answer:
C
— The measurement is off by 5% of the true value
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Q. If a measurement is accurate but not precise, what does it imply? (2019)
A.
All measurements are close to each other
B.
Measurements are close to the true value
C.
Measurements vary widely
D.
None of the above
Show solution
Solution
Accuracy refers to how close a measurement is to the true value.
Correct Answer:
B
— Measurements are close to the true value
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Q. If a measurement is accurate, it means: (2019)
A.
It is close to the true value
B.
It is consistent
C.
It has a small error
D.
It is precise
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Solution
Accuracy refers to how close a measured value is to the true value.
Correct Answer:
A
— It is close to the true value
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Q. If a measurement is recorded as 0.00456 m, how many significant figures are in this measurement?
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Solution
The leading zeros are not significant. Therefore, 0.00456 has 3 significant figures.
Correct Answer:
B
— 3
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Q. If a measurement is recorded as 0.004560, how many significant figures does it have?
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Solution
Leading zeros are not significant. The significant figures are 4, 5, 6, which gives a total of 4 significant figures.
Correct Answer:
C
— 5
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Q. If a measurement is recorded as 0.00780 m, how many significant figures does it have?
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Solution
The measurement 0.00780 m has three significant figures (the zeros before the 7 are not significant, but the zero after the 8 is).
Correct Answer:
C
— 4
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Q. If a measurement is recorded as 0.00780, how many significant figures does it contain?
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Solution
The leading zeros are not significant, but the trailing zero after 78 is significant. Therefore, it has 3 significant figures.
Correct Answer:
C
— 4
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Q. If a measurement is recorded as 0.007890, how many significant figures does it have?
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Solution
Leading zeros do not count as significant figures. The significant figures in 0.007890 are 7, 8, 9, and 0, which totals to 4 significant figures.
Correct Answer:
C
— 5
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Q. If a measurement is recorded as 12.30 cm, what is the absolute error if the true value is 12.5 cm?
A.
0.2 cm
B.
0.3 cm
C.
0.1 cm
D.
0.4 cm
Show solution
Solution
Absolute error = |Measured value - True value| = |12.30 - 12.5| = 0.2 cm.
Correct Answer:
B
— 0.3 cm
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Q. If a measurement is recorded as 1500 m, how many significant figures does it have?
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Solution
The number 1500 m has 2 significant figures unless specified otherwise (e.g., with a decimal point). Without a decimal, trailing zeros are not counted.
Correct Answer:
A
— 2
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Q. If a measurement is recorded as 1500 with no decimal point, how many significant figures does it have?
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Solution
Without a decimal point, trailing zeros are not considered significant. Therefore, 1500 has 2 significant figures.
Correct Answer:
A
— 2
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Q. If a measurement is said to have a precision of 0.01 cm, what does this imply? (2019)
A.
The measurement is accurate to 0.01 cm
B.
The measurement can vary by 0.01 cm
C.
The measurement is exact
D.
The measurement is rounded to 0.01 cm
Show solution
Solution
A precision of 0.01 cm implies that the measurement can vary by this amount, indicating the level of uncertainty.
Correct Answer:
B
— The measurement can vary by 0.01 cm
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Q. If a measurement of time is recorded as 15.0 s with an uncertainty of ±0.5 s, what is the total time range?
A.
14.5 s to 15.5 s
B.
15.0 s to 16.0 s
C.
14.0 s to 15.0 s
D.
15.0 s to 15.5 s
Show solution
Solution
Total time range = 15.0 ± 0.5 = 14.5 s to 15.5 s.
Correct Answer:
A
— 14.5 s to 15.5 s
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Q. If a meeting is scheduled for 1 PM and lasts for 2 hours, what is the latest time it can start to finish by 3 PM?
A.
1 PM
B.
12 PM
C.
2 PM
D.
3 PM
Show solution
Solution
The meeting must start by 1 PM to finish by 3 PM, as it lasts 2 hours.
Correct Answer:
A
— 1 PM
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Q. If a meeting is scheduled for 10 AM and it lasts for 2 hours, what time will it end?
A.
11 AM
B.
12 PM
C.
1 PM
D.
10 PM
Show solution
Solution
The meeting will end at 12 PM, which is 2 hours after 10 AM.
Correct Answer:
B
— 12 PM
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Q. If a meeting is scheduled for 10 AM and lasts for 2 hours, what time will it end?
A.
11 AM
B.
12 PM
C.
1 PM
D.
10 PM
Show solution
Solution
The meeting starts at 10 AM and lasts for 2 hours, so it ends at 12 PM.
Correct Answer:
B
— 12 PM
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Q. If a meeting is scheduled for 1:30 PM and lasts for 1 hour and 15 minutes, when will it end?
A.
2:30 PM
B.
2:45 PM
C.
3:00 PM
D.
3:15 PM
Show solution
Solution
The meeting will end at 2:45 PM.
Correct Answer:
B
— 2:45 PM
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