Pathology & Microbiology

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Q. What is the primary target cell type for HIV?
  • A. Erythrocytes
  • B. Neurons
  • C. CD4+ T lymphocytes
  • D. B lymphocytes
Q. What is the primary virulence factor of Escherichia coli O157:H7?
  • A. Endotoxin
  • B. Shiga toxin
  • C. Capsule
  • D. Flagella
Q. What is the role of histamine in the inflammatory response?
  • A. Vasoconstriction
  • B. Increased vascular permeability
  • C. Pain sensation
  • D. Fever induction
Q. What is the role of the viral envelope?
  • A. To provide structural support
  • B. To facilitate entry into host cells
  • C. To store viral genetic material
  • D. To replicate viral RNA
Q. What is the significance of tumor grading?
  • A. Determines the tumor's size
  • B. Predicts the tumor's behavior and prognosis
  • C. Identifies the tumor's location
  • D. Measures the patient's response to treatment
Q. What is the significance of viral load in HIV treatment?
  • A. Indicates the presence of antibodies
  • B. Measures the number of viral particles in the blood
  • C. Determines the immune response
  • D. Indicates the effectiveness of antibiotics
Q. What is the term for the breakdown of body tissues after death?
  • A. Autolysis
  • B. Putrefaction
  • C. Decomposition
  • D. Necrosis
Q. What is the typical time frame for rigor mortis to fully develop after death?
  • A. 1-2 hours
  • B. 6-12 hours
  • C. 24-36 hours
  • D. 48-72 hours
Q. What laboratory test is most commonly used to diagnose streptococcal pharyngitis?
  • A. Blood culture
  • B. Rapid antigen detection test
  • C. Complete blood count
  • D. Urinalysis
Q. What laboratory test is most useful for diagnosing acute myocardial infarction?
  • A. Complete blood count
  • B. Troponin levels
  • C. Lipid profile
  • D. Electrolyte panel
Q. What laboratory test is most useful for diagnosing tuberculosis?
  • A. Complete blood count
  • B. Acid-fast bacilli smear
  • C. Liver function tests
  • D. Urinalysis
Q. What type of connective tissue provides flexible support and is found in the ear?
  • A. Hyaline cartilage
  • B. Elastic cartilage
  • C. Fibrocartilage
  • D. Dense irregular connective tissue
Q. What type of epithelium is found in the urinary bladder, allowing for stretching?
  • A. Simple squamous epithelium
  • B. Stratified cuboidal epithelium
  • C. Transitional epithelium
  • D. Simple columnar epithelium
Q. What type of epithelium lines the alveoli of the lungs?
  • A. Simple cuboidal epithelium
  • B. Stratified squamous epithelium
  • C. Simple squamous epithelium
  • D. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Q. What type of inflammation is characterized by the presence of pus?
  • A. Serous inflammation
  • B. Fibrinous inflammation
  • C. Suppurative inflammation
  • D. Chronic inflammation
Q. What type of necrosis is characterized by the presence of caseous material, often associated with tuberculosis?
  • A. Coagulative necrosis
  • B. Liquefactive necrosis
  • C. Caseous necrosis
  • D. Fat necrosis
Q. What type of nucleic acid can viruses possess?
  • A. Only DNA
  • B. Only RNA
  • C. Both DNA and RNA
  • D. Neither DNA nor RNA
Q. Which bacterial pathogen is known for causing a severe, rapidly progressive necrotizing fasciitis?
  • A. Streptococcus pyogenes
  • B. Escherichia coli
  • C. Clostridium perfringens
  • D. Staphylococcus aureus
Q. Which bacterium is most commonly associated with peptic ulcers?
  • A. Escherichia coli
  • B. Helicobacter pylori
  • C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • D. Clostridium difficile
Q. Which cytokine is primarily responsible for the fever response during inflammation?
  • A. IL-1
  • B. TNF-alpha
  • C. IL-6
  • D. IFN-gamma
Q. Which drug class is known to have a significant interaction with digoxin, increasing its toxicity?
  • A. Beta-blockers
  • B. Calcium channel blockers
  • C. Macrolide antibiotics
  • D. Diuretics
Q. Which histopathological feature is characteristic of granulomatous inflammation?
  • A. Necrosis
  • B. Lymphocytic infiltration
  • C. Epithelioid macrophages
  • D. Fibrosis
Q. Which histopathological feature is characteristic of necrosis?
  • A. Apoptotic bodies
  • B. Karyolysis
  • C. Cell shrinkage
  • D. Nuclear fragmentation
Q. Which infectious agent is most commonly associated with chronic granulomatous disease?
  • A. Staphylococcus aureus
  • B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • C. Aspergillus species
  • D. Salmonella
Q. Which infectious agent is most commonly associated with peptic ulcers?
  • A. Escherichia coli
  • B. Helicobacter pylori
  • C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • D. Clostridium difficile
Q. Which infectious agent is responsible for causing syphilis?
  • A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • B. Treponema pallidum
  • C. Chlamydia trachomatis
  • D. Mycoplasma genitalium
Q. Which laboratory technique is commonly used to detect viral RNA?
  • A. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
  • B. ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay)
  • C. Western Blot
  • D. Culture method
Q. Which laboratory test is used to assess liver function?
  • A. Prothrombin time
  • B. Blood urea nitrogen
  • C. Creatinine
  • D. Amylase
Q. Which of the following bacteria is known for causing a 'bull's-eye' rash in Lyme disease?
  • A. Borrelia burgdorferi
  • B. Rickettsia rickettsii
  • C. Treponema pallidum
  • D. Clostridium tetani
Q. Which of the following bacteria is known for its ability to form spores that can survive extreme conditions?
  • A. Escherichia coli
  • B. Clostridium botulinum
  • C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • D. Neisseria meningitidis
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