Q. What is the primary target cell type for HIV?
A.
Erythrocytes
B.
Neurons
C.
CD4+ T lymphocytes
D.
B lymphocytes
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Solution
HIV primarily targets CD4+ T lymphocytes, which are crucial for the immune response.
Correct Answer:
C
— CD4+ T lymphocytes
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Q. What is the primary virulence factor of Escherichia coli O157:H7?
A.
Endotoxin
B.
Shiga toxin
C.
Capsule
D.
Flagella
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Solution
Escherichia coli O157:H7 produces Shiga toxin, which can cause severe gastrointestinal disease and hemolytic uremic syndrome.
Correct Answer:
B
— Shiga toxin
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Q. What is the role of histamine in the inflammatory response?
A.
Vasoconstriction
B.
Increased vascular permeability
C.
Pain sensation
D.
Fever induction
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Solution
Histamine plays a key role in increasing vascular permeability and causing vasodilation during the inflammatory response.
Correct Answer:
B
— Increased vascular permeability
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Q. What is the role of the viral envelope?
A.
To provide structural support
B.
To facilitate entry into host cells
C.
To store viral genetic material
D.
To replicate viral RNA
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Solution
The viral envelope plays a crucial role in facilitating the entry of the virus into host cells by fusing with the host cell membrane.
Correct Answer:
B
— To facilitate entry into host cells
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Q. What is the significance of tumor grading?
A.
Determines the tumor's size
B.
Predicts the tumor's behavior and prognosis
C.
Identifies the tumor's location
D.
Measures the patient's response to treatment
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Solution
Tumor grading is significant as it predicts the tumor's behavior and prognosis based on the degree of differentiation and histological features.
Correct Answer:
B
— Predicts the tumor's behavior and prognosis
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Q. What is the significance of viral load in HIV treatment?
A.
Indicates the presence of antibodies
B.
Measures the number of viral particles in the blood
C.
Determines the immune response
D.
Indicates the effectiveness of antibiotics
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Solution
Viral load measures the number of viral particles in the blood, which is crucial for monitoring HIV treatment efficacy.
Correct Answer:
B
— Measures the number of viral particles in the blood
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Q. What is the term for the breakdown of body tissues after death?
A.
Autolysis
B.
Putrefaction
C.
Decomposition
D.
Necrosis
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Solution
Putrefaction is the process of decay or rotting in a body, primarily due to bacterial action.
Correct Answer:
B
— Putrefaction
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Q. What is the typical time frame for rigor mortis to fully develop after death?
A.
1-2 hours
B.
6-12 hours
C.
24-36 hours
D.
48-72 hours
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Solution
Rigor mortis typically begins to develop within 6-12 hours after death and can last for 24-36 hours.
Correct Answer:
B
— 6-12 hours
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Q. What laboratory test is most commonly used to diagnose streptococcal pharyngitis?
A.
Blood culture
B.
Rapid antigen detection test
C.
Complete blood count
D.
Urinalysis
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Solution
The rapid antigen detection test is commonly used to quickly diagnose streptococcal pharyngitis by detecting Group A Streptococcus antigens.
Correct Answer:
B
— Rapid antigen detection test
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Q. What laboratory test is most useful for diagnosing acute myocardial infarction?
A.
Complete blood count
B.
Troponin levels
C.
Lipid profile
D.
Electrolyte panel
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Solution
Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for diagnosing acute myocardial infarction.
Correct Answer:
B
— Troponin levels
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Q. What laboratory test is most useful for diagnosing tuberculosis?
A.
Complete blood count
B.
Acid-fast bacilli smear
C.
Liver function tests
D.
Urinalysis
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Solution
The acid-fast bacilli smear is a key diagnostic test for tuberculosis, as it detects the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Correct Answer:
B
— Acid-fast bacilli smear
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Q. What type of connective tissue provides flexible support and is found in the ear?
A.
Hyaline cartilage
B.
Elastic cartilage
C.
Fibrocartilage
D.
Dense irregular connective tissue
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Solution
Elastic cartilage provides flexible support and is found in structures such as the external ear.
Correct Answer:
B
— Elastic cartilage
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Q. What type of epithelium is found in the urinary bladder, allowing for stretching?
A.
Simple squamous epithelium
B.
Stratified cuboidal epithelium
C.
Transitional epithelium
D.
Simple columnar epithelium
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Solution
Transitional epithelium is specialized to allow stretching and is found in the urinary bladder.
Correct Answer:
C
— Transitional epithelium
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Q. What type of epithelium lines the alveoli of the lungs?
A.
Simple cuboidal epithelium
B.
Stratified squamous epithelium
C.
Simple squamous epithelium
D.
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
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Solution
Simple squamous epithelium is found in the alveoli, allowing for efficient gas exchange due to its thin structure.
Correct Answer:
C
— Simple squamous epithelium
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Q. What type of inflammation is characterized by the presence of pus?
A.
Serous inflammation
B.
Fibrinous inflammation
C.
Suppurative inflammation
D.
Chronic inflammation
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Solution
Suppurative inflammation is characterized by the formation of pus, which consists of dead neutrophils, bacteria, and tissue debris.
Correct Answer:
C
— Suppurative inflammation
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Q. What type of necrosis is characterized by the presence of caseous material, often associated with tuberculosis?
A.
Coagulative necrosis
B.
Liquefactive necrosis
C.
Caseous necrosis
D.
Fat necrosis
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Solution
Caseous necrosis is characterized by the presence of caseous material and is commonly associated with tuberculosis infections.
Correct Answer:
C
— Caseous necrosis
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Q. What type of nucleic acid can viruses possess?
A.
Only DNA
B.
Only RNA
C.
Both DNA and RNA
D.
Neither DNA nor RNA
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Solution
Viruses can possess either DNA or RNA as their genetic material, and some can have both in different forms.
Correct Answer:
C
— Both DNA and RNA
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Q. Which bacterial pathogen is known for causing a severe, rapidly progressive necrotizing fasciitis?
A.
Streptococcus pyogenes
B.
Escherichia coli
C.
Clostridium perfringens
D.
Staphylococcus aureus
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Solution
Streptococcus pyogenes is known for causing necrotizing fasciitis, a severe and rapidly progressive soft tissue infection.
Correct Answer:
A
— Streptococcus pyogenes
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Q. Which bacterium is most commonly associated with peptic ulcers?
A.
Escherichia coli
B.
Helicobacter pylori
C.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
D.
Clostridium difficile
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Solution
Helicobacter pylori is the bacterium most commonly linked to the development of peptic ulcers due to its ability to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach.
Correct Answer:
B
— Helicobacter pylori
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Q. Which cytokine is primarily responsible for the fever response during inflammation?
A.
IL-1
B.
TNF-alpha
C.
IL-6
D.
IFN-gamma
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Solution
IL-1 is a key cytokine that induces fever by acting on the hypothalamus during the inflammatory response.
Correct Answer:
A
— IL-1
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Q. Which drug class is known to have a significant interaction with digoxin, increasing its toxicity?
A.
Beta-blockers
B.
Calcium channel blockers
C.
Macrolide antibiotics
D.
Diuretics
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Solution
Macrolide antibiotics can increase digoxin levels by inhibiting its renal clearance, leading to potential toxicity.
Correct Answer:
C
— Macrolide antibiotics
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Q. Which histopathological feature is characteristic of granulomatous inflammation?
A.
Necrosis
B.
Lymphocytic infiltration
C.
Epithelioid macrophages
D.
Fibrosis
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Solution
Granulomatous inflammation is characterized by the presence of epithelioid macrophages, which form granulomas.
Correct Answer:
C
— Epithelioid macrophages
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Q. Which histopathological feature is characteristic of necrosis?
A.
Apoptotic bodies
B.
Karyolysis
C.
Cell shrinkage
D.
Nuclear fragmentation
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Solution
Karyolysis, the dissolution of the cell nucleus, is a hallmark of necrosis, distinguishing it from apoptosis.
Correct Answer:
B
— Karyolysis
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Q. Which infectious agent is most commonly associated with chronic granulomatous disease?
A.
Staphylococcus aureus
B.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C.
Aspergillus species
D.
Salmonella
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Solution
Aspergillus species are commonly associated with chronic granulomatous disease due to the impaired ability of phagocytes to kill certain pathogens.
Correct Answer:
C
— Aspergillus species
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Q. Which infectious agent is most commonly associated with peptic ulcers?
A.
Escherichia coli
B.
Helicobacter pylori
C.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
D.
Clostridium difficile
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Solution
Helicobacter pylori is the primary infectious agent linked to the development of peptic ulcers.
Correct Answer:
B
— Helicobacter pylori
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Q. Which infectious agent is responsible for causing syphilis?
A.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B.
Treponema pallidum
C.
Chlamydia trachomatis
D.
Mycoplasma genitalium
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Solution
Treponema pallidum is the bacterium that causes syphilis.
Correct Answer:
B
— Treponema pallidum
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Q. Which laboratory technique is commonly used to detect viral RNA?
A.
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
B.
ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay)
C.
Western Blot
D.
Culture method
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Solution
PCR is a widely used technique for amplifying and detecting viral RNA in clinical samples.
Correct Answer:
A
— PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
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Q. Which laboratory test is used to assess liver function?
A.
Prothrombin time
B.
Blood urea nitrogen
C.
Creatinine
D.
Amylase
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Solution
Prothrombin time is used to assess liver function, as the liver produces clotting factors.
Correct Answer:
A
— Prothrombin time
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Q. Which of the following bacteria is known for causing a 'bull's-eye' rash in Lyme disease?
A.
Borrelia burgdorferi
B.
Rickettsia rickettsii
C.
Treponema pallidum
D.
Clostridium tetani
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Solution
Borrelia burgdorferi is the causative agent of Lyme disease, which is characterized by a 'bull's-eye' rash known as erythema migrans.
Correct Answer:
A
— Borrelia burgdorferi
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Q. Which of the following bacteria is known for its ability to form spores that can survive extreme conditions?
A.
Escherichia coli
B.
Clostridium botulinum
C.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
D.
Neisseria meningitidis
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Solution
Clostridium botulinum is a spore-forming bacterium that can survive extreme environmental conditions, making it highly resilient.
Correct Answer:
B
— Clostridium botulinum
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