Q. In gas chromatography, what is the role of the carrier gas?
A.
To dissolve the sample
B.
To provide a medium for separation
C.
To react with the sample
D.
To cool the system
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Solution
The carrier gas provides a medium for separation in gas chromatography.
Correct Answer:
B
— To provide a medium for separation
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Q. In immunohistochemistry, what is the role of the primary antibody?
A.
To bind to the target antigen
B.
To amplify the signal
C.
To visualize the tissue
D.
To fix the tissue sample
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Solution
In immunohistochemistry, the primary antibody binds specifically to the target antigen in the tissue sample.
Correct Answer:
A
— To bind to the target antigen
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Q. In mass spectrometry, what is the purpose of the ionization process?
A.
To separate molecules by size
B.
To convert molecules into ions
C.
To measure absorbance
D.
To enhance fluorescence
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Solution
The ionization process in mass spectrometry converts molecules into ions, allowing them to be analyzed based on their mass-to-charge ratio.
Correct Answer:
B
— To convert molecules into ions
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Q. In NMR spectroscopy, what does a peak represent?
A.
Presence of impurities
B.
Concentration of the sample
C.
Type of solvent used
D.
Number of equivalent nuclei
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Solution
Each peak in an NMR spectrum corresponds to a set of equivalent nuclei in the molecule.
Correct Answer:
D
— Number of equivalent nuclei
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Q. In the absence of lactose, what is the state of the lac operon?
A.
Fully active
B.
Partially active
C.
Inactive
D.
Overactive
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Solution
In the absence of lactose, the lac operon is inactive because the lac repressor binds to the operator, blocking transcription.
Correct Answer:
C
— Inactive
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Q. In thin-layer chromatography (TLC), what is the purpose of the solvent front?
A.
To carry the sample up the plate
B.
To act as a stationary phase
C.
To visualize the compounds
D.
To cool the plate
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Solution
The solvent front carries the sample up the plate in thin-layer chromatography.
Correct Answer:
A
— To carry the sample up the plate
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Q. In which application are immobilized enzymes commonly used?
A.
Biosensors
B.
Drug synthesis
C.
Food processing
D.
All of the above
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Solution
Immobilized enzymes are used in various applications, including biosensors, drug synthesis, and food processing.
Correct Answer:
D
— All of the above
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Q. In which condition is there an accumulation of fluid in the alveoli?
A.
Chronic bronchitis
B.
Pulmonary edema
C.
Cystic fibrosis
D.
Tuberculosis
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Solution
Pulmonary edema is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the alveoli, impairing gas exchange.
Correct Answer:
B
— Pulmonary edema
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Q. In which condition is turbulent flow most likely to occur?
A.
High viscosity
B.
Low velocity
C.
High flow rate
D.
Small diameter
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Solution
Turbulent flow is most likely to occur at high flow rates, where the inertial forces overcome the viscous forces.
Correct Answer:
C
— High flow rate
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Q. In which scenario is agitation most critical?
A.
During a routine check-up
B.
In emergency resuscitation
C.
For chronic pain management
D.
In physical therapy
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Solution
Agitation is critical during emergency resuscitation to ensure effective drug delivery and patient stabilization.
Correct Answer:
B
— In emergency resuscitation
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Q. In which type of hypersensitivity reaction is the immune response primarily mediated by IgE antibodies?
A.
Type I
B.
Type II
C.
Type III
D.
Type IV
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Solution
Type I hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by IgE antibodies, leading to allergic responses.
Correct Answer:
A
— Type I
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Q. The abdominal aorta bifurcates into which two arteries?
A.
Femoral arteries
B.
Iliac arteries
C.
Renal arteries
D.
Celiac trunk
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Solution
The abdominal aorta bifurcates into the right and left iliac arteries, which supply blood to the pelvis and lower limbs.
Correct Answer:
B
— Iliac arteries
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Q. The frontal lobe is primarily associated with which of the following functions?
A.
Vision
B.
Hearing
C.
Decision making
D.
Balance
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Solution
The frontal lobe is associated with higher cognitive functions, including decision making.
Correct Answer:
C
— Decision making
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Q. The primary motor cortex is located in which lobe of the brain?
A.
Frontal lobe
B.
Parietal lobe
C.
Temporal lobe
D.
Occipital lobe
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Solution
The primary motor cortex is located in the frontal lobe, responsible for voluntary motor control.
Correct Answer:
A
— Frontal lobe
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Q. What are Okazaki fragments?
A.
Short DNA segments on the leading strand
B.
Short DNA segments on the lagging strand
C.
RNA primers
D.
Mutated DNA segments
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Solution
Okazaki fragments are short segments of DNA synthesized on the lagging strand during DNA replication.
Correct Answer:
B
— Short DNA segments on the lagging strand
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Q. What are synthetic seeds primarily used for?
A.
To enhance soil fertility
B.
To propagate plants without seeds
C.
To increase crop yield
D.
To improve pest resistance
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Solution
Synthetic seeds are used to propagate plants without the need for traditional seeds, allowing for the cloning of plants.
Correct Answer:
B
— To propagate plants without seeds
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Q. What are the three main steps of PCR?
A.
Denaturation, annealing, extension
B.
Denaturation, transcription, translation
C.
Ligation, denaturation, amplification
D.
Amplification, sequencing, visualization
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Solution
The three main steps of PCR are denaturation, annealing, and extension.
Correct Answer:
A
— Denaturation, annealing, extension
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Q. What are the three main steps of the PCR cycle?
A.
Denaturation, annealing, extension
B.
Denaturation, transcription, translation
C.
Annealing, elongation, termination
D.
Denaturation, replication, repair
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Solution
The three main steps of PCR are denaturation, annealing, and extension.
Correct Answer:
A
— Denaturation, annealing, extension
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Q. What autoimmune condition is characterized by muscle weakness due to the immune system attacking acetylcholine receptors?
A.
Myasthenia Gravis
B.
Guillain-Barré Syndrome
C.
Multiple Sclerosis
D.
Rheumatoid Arthritis
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Solution
Myasthenia Gravis is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system attacks acetylcholine receptors, leading to muscle weakness.
Correct Answer:
A
— Myasthenia Gravis
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Q. What autoimmune disease is associated with the destruction of the thyroid gland, leading to hypothyroidism?
A.
Graves' Disease
B.
Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
C.
Celiac Disease
D.
Sjögren's Syndrome
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Solution
Hashimoto's Thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder that leads to the destruction of the thyroid gland, resulting in hypothyroidism.
Correct Answer:
B
— Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
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Q. What autoimmune disease is characterized by the production of antibodies against the body's own tissues, particularly affecting the skin and joints?
A.
Rheumatoid Arthritis
B.
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
C.
Multiple Sclerosis
D.
Type 1 Diabetes
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Solution
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is an autoimmune disease where the immune system attacks its own tissues, leading to inflammation and damage.
Correct Answer:
B
— Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
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Q. What compound in red wine is thought to have cardioprotective effects?
A.
Resveratrol
B.
Caffeine
C.
Quercetin
D.
Flavonoids
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Solution
Resveratrol is a compound in red wine that is thought to have cardioprotective effects.
Correct Answer:
A
— Resveratrol
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Q. What compound in tomatoes is linked to reduced cancer risk?
A.
Lycopene
B.
Beta-carotene
C.
Vitamin C
D.
Fiber
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Solution
Lycopene, found in tomatoes, is an antioxidant that has been associated with a lower risk of certain cancers.
Correct Answer:
A
— Lycopene
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Q. What condition is characterized by the immune system attacking the myelin sheath of nerve fibers?
A.
Myasthenia Gravis
B.
Multiple Sclerosis
C.
Crohn's Disease
D.
Psoriasis
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Solution
Multiple Sclerosis is an autoimmune disease where the immune system attacks the myelin sheath, leading to neurological symptoms.
Correct Answer:
B
— Multiple Sclerosis
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Q. What condition results from a deficiency in the enzyme ornithine transcarbamylase?
A.
Phenylketonuria
B.
Urea cycle disorder
C.
Maple syrup urine disease
D.
Homocystinuria
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Solution
A deficiency in ornithine transcarbamylase leads to a urea cycle disorder, causing hyperammonemia.
Correct Answer:
B
— Urea cycle disorder
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Q. What does a complete blood count (CBC) primarily assess?
A.
Liver function
B.
Kidney function
C.
Blood cell levels
D.
Electrolyte balance
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Solution
A complete blood count (CBC) primarily assesses the levels of different blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
Correct Answer:
C
— Blood cell levels
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Q. What does a high level of alanine aminotransferase (ALT) indicate?
A.
Kidney damage
B.
Liver damage
C.
Heart disease
D.
Diabetes
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Solution
A high level of alanine aminotransferase (ALT) typically indicates liver damage, as ALT is an enzyme found primarily in the liver.
Correct Answer:
B
— Liver damage
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Q. What does a high level of potassium in the blood indicate?
A.
Hypokalemia
B.
Hyperkalemia
C.
Hyponatremia
D.
Hypernatremia
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Solution
A high level of potassium in the blood is referred to as hyperkalemia, which can affect heart function and muscle contraction.
Correct Answer:
B
— Hyperkalemia
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Q. What does a lipid panel measure?
A.
Blood glucose levels
B.
Liver enzymes
C.
Cholesterol and triglycerides
D.
Electrolyte levels
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Solution
A lipid panel measures cholesterol and triglycerides in the blood, which are important for assessing cardiovascular health.
Correct Answer:
C
— Cholesterol and triglycerides
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Q. What does a low level of albumin in the blood suggest?
A.
Dehydration
B.
Liver disease
C.
Kidney disease
D.
Heart failure
Show solution
Solution
A low level of albumin in the blood often suggests liver disease, as albumin is produced by the liver.
Correct Answer:
B
— Liver disease
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