Commerce & Accountancy

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Q. What accounting standard governs the recognition of revenue in partnerships?
  • A. IFRS 15
  • B. IAS 2
  • C. GAAP
  • D. IFRS 9
Q. What accounting standard governs the recognition of revenue?
  • A. IAS 1
  • B. IFRS 15
  • C. IAS 2
  • D. IFRS 9
Q. What does 'customer relationship management' (CRM) aim to achieve?
  • A. To increase product prices
  • B. To manage customer interactions and data
  • C. To reduce marketing costs
  • D. To standardize customer service
Q. What does 'customer segmentation' involve?
  • A. Dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers
  • B. Combining all customers into one group
  • C. Eliminating less profitable customers
  • D. Increasing prices for all customers
Q. What does 'target market' refer to?
  • A. The total market for a product
  • B. A specific group of consumers a business aims to reach
  • C. The geographical area of sales
  • D. The demographic profile of all customers
Q. What does a balance sheet represent?
  • A. A summary of revenues and expenses
  • B. A snapshot of assets, liabilities, and equity at a specific point in time
  • C. A record of cash inflows and outflows
  • D. A report of financial performance over a period
Q. What does a debt-to-equity ratio of 1 indicate?
  • A. Equal financing from debt and equity
  • B. More equity than debt
  • C. More debt than equity
  • D. No debt
Q. What does a favorable variance indicate?
  • A. Costs are higher than budgeted
  • B. Sales are lower than budgeted
  • C. Costs are lower than budgeted or sales are higher than budgeted
  • D. No impact on financial performance
Q. What does a high debt to equity ratio indicate?
  • A. Low financial risk
  • B. High financial risk
  • C. High liquidity
  • D. Low profitability
Q. What does a high inventory turnover ratio suggest?
  • A. Slow-moving inventory
  • B. Efficient inventory management
  • C. Excessive stock levels
  • D. Low sales volume
Q. What does a low gross profit margin indicate?
  • A. High production costs
  • B. Strong pricing power
  • C. Efficient cost management
  • D. High sales volume
Q. What does a negative direct labor efficiency variance indicate?
  • A. Workers are more efficient than expected
  • B. Workers are less efficient than expected
  • C. Labor costs are lower than budgeted
  • D. Labor costs are higher than budgeted
Q. What does a negative return on equity (ROE) indicate?
  • A. The company is profitable
  • B. The company is losing money
  • C. The company has high debt
  • D. The company is growing
Q. What does a negative return on equity (ROE) signify?
  • A. Company is profitable
  • B. Company is incurring losses
  • C. Company has high debt
  • D. Company has high liquidity
Q. What does a negative variance in budget analysis typically indicate?
  • A. Underperformance in revenue generation
  • B. Overperformance in cost control
  • C. Excessive spending compared to budget
  • D. Accurate forecasting
Q. What does a trial balance ensure?
  • A. That all accounts are balanced
  • B. That all transactions are recorded
  • C. That the financial statements are accurate
  • D. That the company is profitable
Q. What does a trial balance indicate if the total debits exceed total credits?
  • A. Net profit
  • B. Net loss
  • C. Error in accounting
  • D. Correct accounting
Q. What does a trial balance with a debit balance indicate?
  • A. More debits than credits
  • B. More credits than debits
  • C. Balanced accounts
  • D. An error in accounting
Q. What does CGST stand for?
  • A. Central Goods and Services Tax
  • B. Comprehensive Goods and Services Tax
  • C. Common Goods and Services Tax
  • D. Centralized Goods and Services Tax
Q. What does CVP analysis primarily help management to determine?
  • A. The total cost of production
  • B. The contribution margin
  • C. The break-even point
  • D. The return on investment
Q. What does CVP analysis primarily help managers understand?
  • A. The relationship between cost, volume, and profit
  • B. The impact of fixed costs on profitability
  • C. The break-even point of a product
  • D. The effect of taxes on net income
Q. What does FIFO stand for in inventory valuation?
  • A. First In, First Out
  • B. First In, Final Out
  • C. Final In, First Out
  • D. Final In, Final Out
Q. What does GST stand for?
  • A. Goods and Services Tax
  • B. General Sales Tax
  • C. Gross Sales Tax
  • D. Government Sales Tax
Q. What does market segmentation involve?
  • A. Dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers
  • B. Creating a single marketing strategy for all customers
  • C. Increasing the price of products
  • D. Reducing the number of products offered
Q. What does PESTLE analysis stand for?
  • A. Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal, Environmental
  • B. Planning, Evaluation, Strategy, Technology, Leadership, Economics
  • C. Product, Environment, Sales, Technology, Logistics, Economics
  • D. People, Efficiency, Strategy, Technology, Leadership, Economics
Q. What does SWOT analysis help businesses to identify?
  • A. Sales strategies
  • B. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
  • C. Market segmentation
  • D. Financial forecasting
Q. What does SWOT analysis stand for?
  • A. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
  • B. Sales, Workforce, Operations, Technology
  • C. Systems, Workflows, Objectives, Targets
  • D. Strategies, Ways, Options, Tactics
Q. What does the debt to equity ratio indicate?
  • A. Profitability of the company
  • B. Financial leverage of the company
  • C. Liquidity position of the company
  • D. Operational efficiency of the company
Q. What does the debt-to-equity ratio measure?
  • A. Liquidity
  • B. Profitability
  • C. Leverage
  • D. Efficiency
Q. What does the Payback Period measure?
  • A. The time it takes to recover the initial investment
  • B. The profitability of a project over its lifetime
  • C. The total cash inflows from a project
  • D. The risk associated with a project
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