Engineering & Architecture Admissions MCQ & Objective Questions
Engineering & Architecture Admissions play a crucial role in shaping the future of aspiring students in India. With the increasing competition in entrance exams, mastering MCQs and objective questions is essential for effective exam preparation. Practicing these types of questions not only enhances concept clarity but also boosts confidence, helping students score better in their exams.
What You Will Practise Here
Key concepts in Engineering Mathematics
Fundamentals of Physics relevant to architecture and engineering
Important definitions and terminologies in engineering disciplines
Essential formulas for solving objective questions
Diagrams and illustrations for better understanding
Conceptual theories related to structural engineering
Analysis of previous years' important questions
Exam Relevance
The topics covered under Engineering & Architecture Admissions are highly relevant for various examinations such as CBSE, State Boards, NEET, and JEE. Students can expect to encounter MCQs that test their understanding of core concepts, application of formulas, and analytical skills. Common question patterns include multiple-choice questions that require selecting the correct answer from given options, as well as assertion-reason type questions that assess deeper comprehension.
Common Mistakes Students Make
Misinterpreting the question stem, leading to incorrect answers.
Overlooking units in numerical problems, which can change the outcome.
Confusing similar concepts or terms, especially in definitions.
Neglecting to review diagrams, which are often crucial for solving problems.
Rushing through practice questions without understanding the underlying concepts.
FAQs
Question: What are the best ways to prepare for Engineering & Architecture Admissions MCQs?Answer: Regular practice of objective questions, reviewing key concepts, and taking mock tests can significantly enhance your preparation.
Question: How can I improve my accuracy in solving MCQs?Answer: Focus on understanding the concepts thoroughly, practice regularly, and learn to eliminate incorrect options to improve accuracy.
Start your journey towards success by solving practice MCQs today! Test your understanding and strengthen your knowledge in Engineering & Architecture Admissions to excel in your exams.
Q. In a closed system, if the volume of the gas is doubled at constant temperature, what happens to the pressure?
A.
Doubles
B.
Halves
C.
Remains constant
D.
Increases four times
Show solution
Solution
According to Boyle's Law, at constant temperature, if the volume of a gas is doubled, the pressure is halved.
Correct Answer:
B
— Halves
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Q. In a communication system, if the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) is 20 dB, what is the linear SNR?
A.
10
B.
20
C.
100
D.
200
Show solution
Solution
Linear SNR = 10^(SNR(dB)/10) = 10^(20/10) = 100.
Correct Answer:
C
— 100
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Q. In a communication system, what does 'multiplexing' refer to?
A.
Combining multiple signals into one
B.
Separating signals
C.
Amplifying signals
D.
Encoding signals
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Solution
Multiplexing refers to combining multiple signals into one for transmission.
Correct Answer:
A
— Combining multiple signals into one
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Q. In a communication system, what does 'noise' refer to?
A.
The desired signal
B.
Unwanted disturbances that affect the signal
C.
The modulation technique used
D.
The bandwidth of the channel
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Solution
Noise refers to unwanted disturbances that interfere with the desired signal, affecting the quality of communication.
Correct Answer:
B
— Unwanted disturbances that affect the signal
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Q. In a communication system, what does 'signal-to-noise ratio' (SNR) measure?
A.
The strength of the signal relative to background noise
B.
The total power of the signal
C.
The bandwidth of the communication channel
D.
The efficiency of the modulation technique
Show solution
Solution
Signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) measures the strength of the signal relative to the background noise, indicating the quality of the communication.
Correct Answer:
A
— The strength of the signal relative to background noise
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Q. In a compound microscope, which lens is the eyepiece?
A.
Convex lens
B.
Concave lens
C.
Bifocal lens
D.
Plano-convex lens
Show solution
Solution
The eyepiece of a compound microscope is a convex lens.
Correct Answer:
A
— Convex lens
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Q. In a compound microscope, which lens is the objective lens?
A.
The lens closest to the eye
B.
The lens closest to the object
C.
The lens with the longer focal length
D.
The lens with the shorter focal length
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Solution
The objective lens is the one closest to the object being viewed.
Correct Answer:
B
— The lens closest to the object
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Q. In a concentration cell, the potential difference arises due to:
A.
Different temperatures
B.
Different concentrations
C.
Different pressures
D.
Different materials
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Solution
In a concentration cell, the potential difference arises due to different concentrations of the same species.
Correct Answer:
B
— Different concentrations
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Q. In a conical pendulum, if the angle of the string with the vertical is increased, what happens to the horizontal component of the tension?
A.
Increases
B.
Decreases
C.
Remains the same
D.
Becomes zero
Show solution
Solution
As the angle increases, the horizontal component of tension increases to provide the necessary centripetal force.
Correct Answer:
A
— Increases
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Q. In a cyclic process, the change in internal energy is:
A.
Positive
B.
Negative
C.
Zero
D.
Depends on the path taken
Show solution
Solution
In a cyclic process, the system returns to its initial state, so the change in internal energy is zero.
Correct Answer:
C
— Zero
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Q. In a cyclic process, the change in internal energy of the system is:
A.
Positive
B.
Negative
C.
Zero
D.
Depends on the work done
Show solution
Solution
In a cyclic process, the system returns to its initial state, so the change in internal energy is zero.
Correct Answer:
C
— Zero
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Q. In a cyclic process, the net work done by the system is equal to:
A.
The net heat added to the system
B.
The change in internal energy
C.
The heat lost by the system
D.
Zero
Show solution
Solution
In a cyclic process, the net work done by the system is zero because the system returns to its initial state.
Correct Answer:
D
— Zero
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Q. In a cyclic process, the net work done is equal to the:
A.
Change in internal energy
B.
Heat added to the system
C.
Heat removed from the system
D.
Net heat transfer
Show solution
Solution
In a cyclic process, the net work done is equal to the heat added to the system.
Correct Answer:
B
— Heat added to the system
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Q. In a cyclic process, what is the net change in internal energy of the system?
A.
Positive
B.
Negative
C.
Zero
D.
Depends on the path taken
Show solution
Solution
In a cyclic process, the system returns to its initial state, so the net change in internal energy is zero.
Correct Answer:
C
— Zero
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Q. In a cyclic process, what is the net change in internal energy?
A.
Positive
B.
Negative
C.
Zero
D.
Depends on the process
Show solution
Solution
In a cyclic process, the system returns to its initial state, so the net change in internal energy is zero.
Correct Answer:
C
— Zero
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Q. In a damped harmonic oscillator, if the amplitude decreases to half its initial value in 4 seconds, what is the damping ratio?
A.
0.25
B.
0.5
C.
0.75
D.
1.0
Show solution
Solution
The damping ratio can be calculated using the logarithmic decrement method, leading to ζ = 0.25.
Correct Answer:
A
— 0.25
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Q. In a damped harmonic oscillator, if the damping coefficient is increased, what happens to the time period of oscillation?
A.
Time period increases
B.
Time period decreases
C.
Time period remains the same
D.
Time period becomes zero
Show solution
Solution
The time period of a damped harmonic oscillator remains the same; damping affects amplitude, not period.
Correct Answer:
C
— Time period remains the same
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Q. In a damped harmonic oscillator, if the damping coefficient is increased, what happens to the amplitude of oscillation?
A.
Increases
B.
Decreases
C.
Remains the same
D.
Becomes zero
Show solution
Solution
In a damped harmonic oscillator, increasing the damping coefficient results in a decrease in the amplitude of oscillation over time.
Correct Answer:
B
— Decreases
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Q. In a damped harmonic oscillator, if the mass is doubled while keeping the damping coefficient constant, what happens to the damping ratio?
A.
Doubles
B.
Halves
C.
Remains the same
D.
Increases by a factor of √2
Show solution
Solution
Damping ratio (ζ) = c / (2√(mk)). If m is doubled, ζ is halved.
Correct Answer:
B
— Halves
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Q. In a damped harmonic oscillator, what effect does increasing the damping coefficient have on the oscillation?
A.
Increases amplitude
B.
Decreases amplitude
C.
Increases frequency
D.
Decreases frequency
Show solution
Solution
Increasing the damping coefficient results in a decrease in amplitude over time, leading to quicker energy loss.
Correct Answer:
B
— Decreases amplitude
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Q. In a damped harmonic oscillator, what happens to the amplitude of oscillation over time?
A.
Increases
B.
Decreases
C.
Remains constant
D.
Oscillates
Show solution
Solution
In a damped harmonic oscillator, the amplitude of oscillation decreases over time due to energy loss.
Correct Answer:
B
— Decreases
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Q. In a damped harmonic oscillator, which factor primarily determines the rate of energy loss?
A.
Mass of the oscillator
B.
Spring constant
C.
Damping coefficient
D.
Frequency of oscillation
Show solution
Solution
The damping coefficient determines how quickly the energy is lost in a damped harmonic oscillator.
Correct Answer:
C
— Damping coefficient
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Q. In a damped harmonic oscillator, which of the following quantities decreases over time?
A.
Amplitude
B.
Frequency
C.
Angular frequency
D.
Phase constant
Show solution
Solution
In a damped harmonic oscillator, the amplitude decreases over time due to the energy lost to damping forces.
Correct Answer:
A
— Amplitude
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Q. In a damped harmonic oscillator, which of the following statements is true?
A.
Energy is conserved
B.
Amplitude decreases over time
C.
Frequency increases over time
D.
Phase remains constant
Show solution
Solution
In a damped harmonic oscillator, the amplitude decreases over time due to the loss of energy.
Correct Answer:
B
— Amplitude decreases over time
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Q. In a damped harmonic oscillator, which parameter is primarily responsible for energy loss?
A.
Mass
B.
Spring constant
C.
Damping coefficient
D.
Driving force
Show solution
Solution
The damping coefficient determines the rate of energy loss in a damped harmonic oscillator.
Correct Answer:
C
— Damping coefficient
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Q. In a damped harmonic oscillator, which parameter primarily determines the rate of energy loss?
A.
Mass of the oscillator
B.
Spring constant
C.
Damping coefficient
D.
Driving force
Show solution
Solution
The damping coefficient determines how quickly energy is lost in a damped harmonic oscillator.
Correct Answer:
C
— Damping coefficient
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Q. In a damped oscillator, if the energy decreases to 25% of its initial value in 10 seconds, what is the damping ratio?
A.
0.1
B.
0.2
C.
0.3
D.
0.4
Show solution
Solution
Using E(t) = E_0 e^(-2ζω_nt), we find ζ = 0.2.
Correct Answer:
B
— 0.2
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Q. In a Daniell cell, which metal is oxidized?
A.
Copper
B.
Zinc
C.
Lead
D.
Silver
Show solution
Solution
In a Daniell cell, zinc is oxidized.
Correct Answer:
B
— Zinc
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Q. In a data set, if the mean is 30 and the median is 25, what can be inferred about the data?
A.
Skewed right
B.
Skewed left
C.
Symmetrical
D.
Uniform
Show solution
Solution
Since the mean is greater than the median, the data is skewed right.
Correct Answer:
A
— Skewed right
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Q. In a data set, if the mean is 30 and the median is 25, what can be inferred?
A.
Data is skewed right
B.
Data is skewed left
C.
Data is symmetric
D.
Data is uniform
Show solution
Solution
Since the mean is greater than the median, the data is skewed to the right.
Correct Answer:
A
— Data is skewed right
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