Major Competitive Exams

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Major Competitive Exams MCQ & Objective Questions

Major Competitive Exams play a crucial role in shaping the academic and professional futures of students in India. These exams not only assess knowledge but also test problem-solving skills and time management. Practicing MCQs and objective questions is essential for scoring better, as they help in familiarizing students with the exam format and identifying important questions that frequently appear in tests.

What You Will Practise Here

  • Key concepts and theories related to major subjects
  • Important formulas and their applications
  • Definitions of critical terms and terminologies
  • Diagrams and illustrations to enhance understanding
  • Practice questions that mirror actual exam patterns
  • Strategies for solving objective questions efficiently
  • Time management techniques for competitive exams

Exam Relevance

The topics covered under Major Competitive Exams are integral to various examinations such as CBSE, State Boards, NEET, and JEE. Students can expect to encounter a mix of conceptual and application-based questions that require a solid understanding of the subjects. Common question patterns include multiple-choice questions that test both knowledge and analytical skills, making it essential to be well-prepared with practice MCQs.

Common Mistakes Students Make

  • Rushing through questions without reading them carefully
  • Overlooking the negative marking scheme in MCQs
  • Confusing similar concepts or terms
  • Neglecting to review previous years’ question papers
  • Failing to manage time effectively during the exam

FAQs

Question: How can I improve my performance in Major Competitive Exams?
Answer: Regular practice of MCQs and understanding key concepts will significantly enhance your performance.

Question: What types of questions should I focus on for these exams?
Answer: Concentrate on important Major Competitive Exams questions that frequently appear in past papers and mock tests.

Question: Are there specific strategies for tackling objective questions?
Answer: Yes, practicing under timed conditions and reviewing mistakes can help develop effective strategies.

Start your journey towards success by solving practice MCQs today! Test your understanding and build confidence for your upcoming exams. Remember, consistent practice is the key to mastering Major Competitive Exams!

Q. Which of the following statements best describes the role of the State Legislature in India? (1950)
  • A. It is responsible for the formulation of national policies.
  • B. It has the power to amend the Constitution.
  • C. It enacts laws on subjects enumerated in the State List.
  • D. It conducts elections for the President of India.
Q. Which of the following statements best describes the significance of the Magna Carta of 1215?
  • A. It established the principle of the divine right of kings.
  • B. It limited the powers of the king and laid the foundation for parliamentary democracy.
  • C. It was the first written constitution in the world.
  • D. It abolished feudalism in England.
Q. Which of the following statements best describes the significance of the Mauryan Empire in Indian history?
  • A. It was the first empire to unify most of the Indian subcontinent.
  • B. It was primarily known for its trade relations with the Roman Empire.
  • C. It was the first to adopt Buddhism as the state religion.
  • D. It marked the beginning of the medieval period in India.
Q. Which of the following statements best describes the significance of the Mauryan Empire in ancient Indian history?
  • A. It was the first empire to unify most of the Indian subcontinent.
  • B. It was primarily known for its trade relations with the Roman Empire.
  • C. It was the first to adopt Buddhism as the state religion.
  • D. It was characterized by a feudal system of governance.
Q. Which of the following statements best describes the social structure of ancient Indian society during the Vedic period?
  • A. It was strictly hierarchical with no mobility.
  • B. It was fluid with significant social mobility.
  • C. It was based on wealth and land ownership.
  • D. It was egalitarian with equal rights for all.
Q. Which of the following statements best illustrates the concept of diminishing returns in resource allocation?
  • A. Increasing the number of workers in a factory leads to a proportional increase in output.
  • B. Adding more fertilizer to a crop field results in a smaller increase in yield over time.
  • C. Investing in technology always leads to higher productivity.
  • D. Resource allocation should always prioritize financial returns.
Q. Which of the following statements best illustrates the principle of diminishing returns in resource allocation?
  • A. Increasing the number of workers in a factory will always increase output proportionately.
  • B. After a certain point, adding more resources results in smaller increases in output.
  • C. Investing in technology will always yield higher returns than investing in labor.
  • D. Resource allocation should be based solely on market demand.
Q. Which of the following statements best summarizes the overall trend depicted in the mixed graph?
  • A. Sales are expected to decline in the next quarter.
  • B. There is a positive correlation between product launches and sales.
  • C. Customer engagement has no impact on sales.
  • D. Sales trends are unpredictable and erratic.
Q. Which of the following statements best summarizes the principle of 'Pareto Efficiency' in resource allocation? (2023)
  • A. Resources are allocated in a way that maximizes total output.
  • B. No reallocation can make one individual better off without making another worse off.
  • C. Resources are distributed equally among all individuals.
  • D. The allocation of resources is based solely on market demand.
Q. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage about renewable energy?
  • A. Renewable energy sources are more expensive than fossil fuels.
  • B. The adoption of renewable energy is crucial for sustainable development.
  • C. Renewable energy has no environmental benefits.
  • D. All countries have equal access to renewable energy technologies.
Q. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage about the future of digital sum? (2023)
  • A. It will become obsolete with the rise of quantum computing.
  • B. It will continue to evolve and integrate with new technologies.
  • C. It is likely to be replaced by simpler methods.
  • D. It will remain unchanged for the foreseeable future.
Q. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage about the importance of digital sum? (2023)
  • A. Digital sum is obsolete in today's technology.
  • B. Understanding digital sum is crucial for data analysis.
  • C. Digital sum has no practical applications.
  • D. Only mathematicians need to understand digital sum.
Q. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
  • A. The discovery will have no impact on future research.
  • B. The researchers faced significant challenges during their study.
  • C. The findings contradict previous theories.
  • D. The study was funded by a private organization.
Q. Which of the following statements can be logically inferred from the passage?
  • A. All inequalities are economic.
  • B. Inequalities can be addressed through collective action.
  • C. Inequalities are a recent phenomenon.
  • D. Inequalities affect only certain demographics.
Q. Which of the following statements does not fit with the others regarding the benefits of exercise? (2023)
  • A. Improves cardiovascular health
  • B. Enhances mood
  • C. Increases stress levels
  • D. Aids in weight management
Q. Which of the following statements does not logically follow from the others? (2023)
  • A. All mammals are warm-blooded.
  • B. Whales are mammals.
  • C. Some mammals can fly.
  • D. All mammals lay eggs.
Q. Which of the following statements is a logical conclusion based on the data analysis? (2023)
  • A. All data analyses yield the same results.
  • B. Data analysis is essential for understanding market dynamics.
  • C. Data analysis can be ignored in strategic planning.
  • D. Only quantitative data is relevant for analysis.
Q. Which of the following statements is a logical conclusion based on the passage? (2023)
  • A. All leaders must possess emotional intelligence.
  • B. Emotional intelligence can be developed over time.
  • C. Leadership is solely based on technical skills.
  • D. Emotional intelligence is irrelevant in business.
Q. Which of the following statements is a valid conclusion drawn from the passage?
  • A. All individuals are inherently good.
  • B. Education systems need to adapt to modern needs.
  • C. Technology will eventually replace teachers.
  • D. Critical thinking is not valued in society.
Q. Which of the following statements is a valid inference based on the passage? (2023)
  • A. The author believes that all technology is harmful.
  • B. The author supports the integration of technology in education.
  • C. The author is indifferent to the effects of technology.
  • D. The author advocates for a complete ban on technology.
Q. Which of the following statements is an inference that can be drawn from the passage? (2023)
  • A. The author believes that all technology is harmful.
  • B. The author supports the integration of technology in education.
  • C. The author is against any form of technological change.
  • D. The author is indifferent to the effects of technology.
Q. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the molecular orbital theory?
  • A. It explains the magnetic properties of molecules.
  • B. It does not apply to diatomic molecules.
  • C. It only considers sigma bonds.
  • D. It is not applicable to resonance structures.
Q. Which of the following statements is false regarding inductive effect?
  • A. It is a permanent effect
  • B. It decreases with distance
  • C. It is stronger than mesomeric effect
  • D. It can be +I or -I
Q. Which of the following statements is false regarding polygons?
  • A. A polygon can be both concave and convex.
  • B. All quadrilaterals are polygons.
  • C. A polygon can have curved sides.
  • D. The number of diagonals in a polygon increases with the number of sides.
Q. Which of the following statements is false regarding the inductive effect?
  • A. It is a permanent effect.
  • B. It operates through sigma bonds.
  • C. It can be observed in both aliphatic and aromatic compounds.
  • D. It involves the delocalization of pi electrons.
Q. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding molecular orbitals?
  • A. Molecular orbitals can be occupied by a maximum of two electrons.
  • B. Bonding molecular orbitals are lower in energy than the corresponding atomic orbitals.
  • C. Antibonding molecular orbitals are higher in energy than the corresponding atomic orbitals.
  • D. All molecular orbitals are degenerate.
Q. Which of the following statements is logically consistent with the data presented in the mixed graph regarding consumer preferences?
  • A. Consumer preferences have shifted towards sustainable products.
  • B. There is no change in consumer preferences over the years.
  • C. Consumers prefer traditional products over new ones.
  • D. Consumer preferences are influenced by marketing strategies.
Q. Which of the following statements is logically consistent with the definition of a multiple?
  • A. A multiple of a number is always greater than the number itself.
  • B. A multiple of a number can be negative.
  • C. A multiple of a number is always an integer.
  • D. All of the above.
Q. Which of the following statements is logically consistent with the definition of multiples?
  • A. Every multiple of 7 is also a multiple of 14.
  • B. A number cannot be a multiple of itself.
  • C. The sum of two multiples of 3 is always a multiple of 3.
  • D. A multiple of 5 is never a multiple of 10.
Q. Which of the following statements is logically consistent with the definition of a factor?
  • A. A factor of a number is always greater than the number.
  • B. A factor of a number divides the number without leaving a remainder.
  • C. A factor can only be a prime number.
  • D. A factor is always a multiple of the number.
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