Law & Legal Studies

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Law & Legal Studies MCQ & Objective Questions

Law & Legal Studies is a crucial subject for students aiming to excel in their exams. Understanding legal principles not only enhances your knowledge but also equips you with the skills needed to tackle various objective questions effectively. Practicing MCQs and important questions in this field can significantly boost your exam preparation and help you score better.

What You Will Practise Here

  • Fundamental Rights and Duties
  • Legal Terminology and Definitions
  • Types of Laws: Civil, Criminal, and Constitutional
  • Judicial System and Hierarchy
  • Important Legal Principles and Theories
  • Case Studies and Landmark Judgments
  • Legal Procedures and Processes

Exam Relevance

Law & Legal Studies is a significant part of the curriculum for CBSE, State Boards, and various competitive exams like NEET and JEE. Questions often focus on definitions, legal principles, and landmark cases. Common patterns include scenario-based questions, true or false statements, and direct questions that test your understanding of legal concepts. Mastery of this subject can give you an edge in your exam performance.

Common Mistakes Students Make

  • Confusing similar legal terms and their applications.
  • Overlooking the importance of case studies in understanding legal principles.
  • Neglecting to practice MCQs, leading to a lack of familiarity with question formats.
  • Misinterpreting questions due to lack of clarity in legal language.

FAQs

Question: What are the key areas to focus on in Law & Legal Studies for exams?
Answer: Focus on fundamental rights, types of laws, and landmark judgments, as these are frequently tested.

Question: How can I improve my performance in Law & Legal Studies MCQs?
Answer: Regular practice of objective questions and understanding key concepts will enhance your performance significantly.

Start solving practice MCQs today to test your understanding and solidify your knowledge in Law & Legal Studies. Your success in exams is just a question away!

Q. Which of the following is NOT a type of consideration?
  • A. Past consideration
  • B. Present consideration
  • C. Future consideration
  • D. Moral consideration
Q. Which of the following is NOT a type of remedy for breach of contract?
  • A. Compensatory damages
  • B. Punitive damages
  • C. Specific performance
  • D. Rescission
Q. Which of the following is NOT a valid form of acceptance?
  • A. Silence
  • B. Verbal agreement
  • C. Written agreement
  • D. Conduct indicating acceptance
Q. Which of the following is NOT a valid form of consideration?
  • A. Past consideration
  • B. Present consideration
  • C. Future consideration
  • D. Moral obligation
Q. Which of the following is NOT considered a part of the basic structure of the Constitution?
  • A. Separation of powers
  • B. Judicial review
  • C. Fundamental rights
  • D. Amendment procedures
Q. Which of the following is NOT considered part of the basic structure of the Constitution?
  • A. Separation of powers
  • B. Federalism
  • C. Fundamental Rights
  • D. Parliamentary sovereignty
Q. Which of the following is true regarding the duty to mitigate damages?
  • A. The non-breaching party has no obligation to mitigate damages
  • B. The non-breaching party must take reasonable steps to reduce their losses
  • C. The breaching party must mitigate damages
  • D. Mitigation is only required in tort cases
Q. Which of the following judgments emphasized the importance of judicial review in protecting democracy?
  • A. Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
  • B. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
  • C. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
  • D. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
Q. Which of the following rights is NOT explicitly mentioned as a fundamental right in the Constitution?
  • A. Right to freedom of speech
  • B. Right to privacy
  • C. Right to property
  • D. Right to equality
Q. Which remedy allows a non-breaching party to recover the value of benefits conferred to the breaching party?
  • A. Compensatory damages
  • B. Restitution
  • C. Specific performance
  • D. Nominal damages
Q. Which remedy allows a party to recover the value of benefits conferred to the other party?
  • A. Compensatory damages
  • B. Restitution
  • C. Specific performance
  • D. Nominal damages
Q. Which remedy is typically available for breach of contract under the Transfer of Property Act?
  • A. Specific performance
  • B. Injunction
  • C. Damages
  • D. All of the above
Q. Which remedy is typically sought for a breach of contract?
  • A. Injunction
  • B. Specific performance
  • C. Damages
  • D. Rescission
Q. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the distribution of powers between the Centre and the States?
  • A. First Schedule
  • B. Seventh Schedule
  • C. Ninth Schedule
  • D. Tenth Schedule
Q. Which section allows for the arrest of a person without a warrant in certain circumstances?
  • A. Section 41
  • B. Section 42
  • C. Section 43
  • D. Section 44
Q. Which section allows for the arrest of a person without a warrant?
  • A. Section 41
  • B. Section 42
  • C. Section 43
  • D. Section 44
Q. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the power of police to arrest without a warrant?
  • A. Section 41
  • B. Section 151
  • C. Section 154
  • D. Section 160
Q. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the power of police to investigate?
  • A. Section 154
  • B. Section 156
  • C. Section 161
  • D. Section 164
Q. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the powers of police officers to investigate?
  • A. Section 154
  • B. Section 161
  • C. Section 157
  • D. Section 165
Q. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code mandates the recording of statements by the police during an investigation?
  • A. Section 161
  • B. Section 164
  • C. Section 165
  • D. Section 170
Q. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code outlines the procedure for arrest without a warrant?
  • A. Section 41
  • B. Section 46
  • C. Section 50
  • D. Section 57
Q. Which section of the CrPC deals with the power of police to arrest without a warrant?
  • A. Section 41
  • B. Section 151
  • C. Section 154
  • D. Section 160
Q. Which section of the Evidence Act deals with the admissibility of confessions?
  • A. Section 24
  • B. Section 25
  • C. Section 26
  • D. Section 27
Q. Which section of the IPC addresses the concept of 'Abetment'?
  • A. Section 107
  • B. Section 108
  • C. Section 109
  • D. Section 110
Q. Which section of the IPC addresses the concept of 'criminal conspiracy'?
  • A. Section 120A
  • B. Section 120B
  • C. Section 121
  • D. Section 122
Q. Which section of the IPC addresses the concept of 'negligence'?
  • A. Section 304A
  • B. Section 299
  • C. Section 300
  • D. Section 304
Q. Which section of the IPC addresses the issue of data theft?
  • A. Section 66B
  • B. Section 66C
  • C. Section 66D
  • D. Section 66A
Q. Which section of the IPC deals with cyber crimes?
  • A. Section 66
  • B. Section 67
  • C. Section 68
  • D. Section 69
Q. Which section of the IPC deals with the definition of 'culpable homicide'?
  • A. Section 299
  • B. Section 300
  • C. Section 304
  • D. Section 306
Q. Which section of the IPC deals with the definition of theft?
  • A. Section 378
  • B. Section 390
  • C. Section 403
  • D. Section 405
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