Q. Which of the following is NOT a type of consideration?
A.
Past consideration
B.
Present consideration
C.
Future consideration
D.
Moral consideration
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Solution
Moral consideration is not recognized as valid consideration in contract law; valid consideration must be legal and tangible.
Correct Answer:
D
— Moral consideration
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a type of remedy for breach of contract?
A.
Compensatory damages
B.
Punitive damages
C.
Specific performance
D.
Rescission
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Solution
Punitive damages are generally not available for breach of contract, as they are intended to punish wrongful conduct rather than compensate for loss.
Correct Answer:
B
— Punitive damages
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a valid form of acceptance?
A.
Silence
B.
Verbal agreement
C.
Written agreement
D.
Conduct indicating acceptance
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Solution
Silence is generally not considered a valid form of acceptance unless there is a prior agreement stating otherwise.
Correct Answer:
A
— Silence
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Q. Which of the following is NOT a valid form of consideration?
A.
Past consideration
B.
Present consideration
C.
Future consideration
D.
Moral obligation
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Solution
Moral obligation is not considered valid consideration under contract law.
Correct Answer:
D
— Moral obligation
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Q. Which of the following is NOT considered a part of the basic structure of the Constitution?
A.
Separation of powers
B.
Judicial review
C.
Fundamental rights
D.
Amendment procedures
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Solution
Amendment procedures are not considered a part of the basic structure; rather, the basic structure doctrine protects certain fundamental features from being amended.
Correct Answer:
D
— Amendment procedures
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Q. Which of the following is NOT considered part of the basic structure of the Constitution?
A.
Separation of powers
B.
Federalism
C.
Fundamental Rights
D.
Parliamentary sovereignty
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Solution
Parliamentary sovereignty is not considered part of the basic structure of the Constitution; rather, the basic structure emphasizes the supremacy of the Constitution itself.
Correct Answer:
D
— Parliamentary sovereignty
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Q. Which of the following is true regarding the duty to mitigate damages?
A.
The non-breaching party has no obligation to mitigate damages
B.
The non-breaching party must take reasonable steps to reduce their losses
C.
The breaching party must mitigate damages
D.
Mitigation is only required in tort cases
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Solution
The non-breaching party has a duty to take reasonable steps to mitigate their damages after a breach occurs.
Correct Answer:
B
— The non-breaching party must take reasonable steps to reduce their losses
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Q. Which of the following judgments emphasized the importance of judicial review in protecting democracy?
A.
Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
B.
Minerva Mills v. Union of India
C.
Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
D.
S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
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Solution
The Minerva Mills case emphasized the importance of judicial review in protecting democracy and the basic structure of the Constitution.
Correct Answer:
B
— Minerva Mills v. Union of India
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Q. Which of the following rights is NOT explicitly mentioned as a fundamental right in the Constitution?
A.
Right to freedom of speech
B.
Right to privacy
C.
Right to property
D.
Right to equality
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Solution
The right to property was originally a fundamental right but was removed from Part III and is now a legal right under Article 300A.
Correct Answer:
C
— Right to property
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Q. Which remedy allows a non-breaching party to recover the value of benefits conferred to the breaching party?
A.
Compensatory damages
B.
Restitution
C.
Specific performance
D.
Nominal damages
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Solution
Restitution allows a non-breaching party to recover the value of benefits conferred to the breaching party.
Correct Answer:
B
— Restitution
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Q. Which remedy allows a party to recover the value of benefits conferred to the other party?
A.
Compensatory damages
B.
Restitution
C.
Specific performance
D.
Nominal damages
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Solution
Restitution allows a party to recover the value of benefits conferred to the other party.
Correct Answer:
B
— Restitution
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Q. Which remedy is typically available for breach of contract under the Transfer of Property Act?
A.
Specific performance
B.
Injunction
C.
Damages
D.
All of the above
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Solution
All of these remedies can be available for breach of contract, depending on the circumstances.
Correct Answer:
D
— All of the above
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Q. Which remedy is typically sought for a breach of contract?
A.
Injunction
B.
Specific performance
C.
Damages
D.
Rescission
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Solution
Damages are the most common remedy sought for a breach of contract, compensating the injured party for losses.
Correct Answer:
C
— Damages
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Q. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the distribution of powers between the Centre and the States?
A.
First Schedule
B.
Seventh Schedule
C.
Ninth Schedule
D.
Tenth Schedule
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Solution
The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the distribution of powers between the Centre and the States.
Correct Answer:
B
— Seventh Schedule
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Q. Which section allows for the arrest of a person without a warrant in certain circumstances?
A.
Section 41
B.
Section 42
C.
Section 43
D.
Section 44
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Solution
Section 41 allows for the arrest of a person without a warrant in certain circumstances.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 41
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Q. Which section allows for the arrest of a person without a warrant?
A.
Section 41
B.
Section 42
C.
Section 43
D.
Section 44
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Solution
Section 41 allows for the arrest of a person without a warrant under certain circumstances.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 41
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Q. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the power of police to arrest without a warrant?
A.
Section 41
B.
Section 151
C.
Section 154
D.
Section 160
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Solution
Section 41 of the Criminal Procedure Code provides the power of police to arrest without a warrant.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 41
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Q. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the power of police to investigate?
A.
Section 154
B.
Section 156
C.
Section 161
D.
Section 164
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Solution
Section 156 of the Criminal Procedure Code empowers the police to investigate any cognizable offense without the direction of a magistrate.
Correct Answer:
B
— Section 156
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Q. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the powers of police officers to investigate?
A.
Section 154
B.
Section 161
C.
Section 157
D.
Section 165
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Solution
Section 157 of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the powers of police officers to investigate.
Correct Answer:
C
— Section 157
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Q. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code mandates the recording of statements by the police during an investigation?
A.
Section 161
B.
Section 164
C.
Section 165
D.
Section 170
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Solution
Section 161 mandates the recording of statements by the police during an investigation.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 161
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Q. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code outlines the procedure for arrest without a warrant?
A.
Section 41
B.
Section 46
C.
Section 50
D.
Section 57
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Solution
Section 41 of the Criminal Procedure Code provides the conditions under which a police officer may arrest a person without a warrant.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 41
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Q. Which section of the CrPC deals with the power of police to arrest without a warrant?
A.
Section 41
B.
Section 151
C.
Section 154
D.
Section 160
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Solution
CrPC Section 41 allows police to arrest without a warrant in certain circumstances.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 41
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Q. Which section of the Evidence Act deals with the admissibility of confessions?
A.
Section 24
B.
Section 25
C.
Section 26
D.
Section 27
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Solution
Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act states that no confession made to a police officer shall be proved against a person.
Correct Answer:
B
— Section 25
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Q. Which section of the IPC addresses the concept of 'Abetment'?
A.
Section 107
B.
Section 108
C.
Section 109
D.
Section 110
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Solution
Section 107 defines abetment, which involves instigating, aiding, or conspiring to commit an offense.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 107
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Q. Which section of the IPC addresses the concept of 'criminal conspiracy'?
A.
Section 120A
B.
Section 120B
C.
Section 121
D.
Section 122
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Solution
Section 120A of the IPC defines criminal conspiracy.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 120A
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Q. Which section of the IPC addresses the concept of 'negligence'?
A.
Section 304A
B.
Section 299
C.
Section 300
D.
Section 304
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Solution
Section 304A of the IPC addresses the concept of negligence, specifically causing death by negligence.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 304A
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Q. Which section of the IPC addresses the issue of data theft?
A.
Section 66B
B.
Section 66C
C.
Section 66D
D.
Section 66A
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Solution
Section 66B of the IPC specifically addresses data theft and prescribes penalties.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 66B
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Q. Which section of the IPC deals with cyber crimes?
A.
Section 66
B.
Section 67
C.
Section 68
D.
Section 69
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Solution
Section 66 of the IPC addresses computer-related offenses, including hacking and data theft.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 66
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Q. Which section of the IPC deals with the definition of 'culpable homicide'?
A.
Section 299
B.
Section 300
C.
Section 304
D.
Section 306
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Solution
Section 299 of the IPC defines 'culpable homicide'.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 299
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Q. Which section of the IPC deals with the definition of theft?
A.
Section 378
B.
Section 390
C.
Section 403
D.
Section 405
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Solution
IPC Section 378 defines theft as the act of dishonestly taking movable property out of the possession of another.
Correct Answer:
A
— Section 378
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