Microbiology & Immunology

Q. A 25-year-old male presents with recurrent respiratory infections. Which immune component is most likely deficient?
  • A. B cells
  • B. T cells
  • C. Complement system
  • D. Phagocytes
Q. A 28-year-old woman presents with a sore throat and swollen lymph nodes. A rapid strep test is positive. What is the most likely causative agent?
  • A. Streptococcus pyogenes
  • B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • C. Haemophilus influenzae
  • D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Q. A 30-year-old woman develops a urinary tract infection. A urine culture shows the presence of a gram-negative bacillus. Which organism is the most common cause of such infections?
  • A. Escherichia coli
  • B. Proteus mirabilis
  • C. Enterococcus faecalis
  • D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Q. A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). What type of immune response is primarily involved in this autoimmune disease?
  • A. Innate immune response
  • B. Humoral immune response
  • C. Cell-mediated immune response
  • D. Complement-mediated response
Q. A 45-year-old man presents with fever, cough, and chest pain. A chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. Which microorganism is most likely responsible for this condition?
  • A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
  • D. Legionella pneumophila
Q. A 50-year-old man presents with fever, night sweats, and weight loss. A biopsy of a lymph node reveals granulomas. Which infectious agent is most likely responsible?
  • A. Histoplasma capsulatum
  • B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • C. Coccidioides immitis
  • D. Brucella spp.
Q. A child is brought to the clinic with a rash, fever, and cough. The physician suspects measles. Which vaccine could have prevented this disease?
  • A. Inactivated polio vaccine
  • B. MMR vaccine
  • C. Hepatitis B vaccine
  • D. Diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis vaccine
Q. A child receives a measles vaccine. What type of immunity is conferred by this vaccination?
  • A. Passive immunity
  • B. Active immunity
  • C. Innate immunity
  • D. Natural immunity
Q. A culture shows a growth of 1,200 colonies after incubation. If the dilution factor was 1:100, what was the original concentration of bacteria in the sample?
  • A. 120,000 CFU/mL
  • B. 12,000 CFU/mL
  • C. 1,200 CFU/mL
  • D. 120 CFU/mL
Q. A laboratory technician is exposed to a needle stick injury from a patient with hepatitis B. What is the most appropriate post-exposure prophylaxis?
  • A. Hepatitis B vaccine
  • B. Hepatitis A vaccine
  • C. Intravenous immunoglobulin
  • D. No treatment necessary
Q. A laboratory test shows that a patient has a viral load of 5,000 copies/mL. If the treatment reduces the viral load by 80%, what is the new viral load?
  • A. 1,000 copies/mL
  • B. 2,000 copies/mL
  • C. 3,000 copies/mL
  • D. 4,000 copies/mL
Q. A patient develops an allergic reaction after exposure to pollen. Which type of immune response is primarily involved?
  • A. Cell-mediated immunity
  • B. Humoral immunity
  • C. Innate immunity
  • D. Autoimmunity
Q. A patient is diagnosed with a bacterial infection and is prescribed antibiotics. If the bacteria have a resistance rate of 25%, what is the probability that a randomly selected bacterium is susceptible to the antibiotic?
  • A. 25%
  • B. 50%
  • C. 75%
  • D. 100%
Q. A patient presents with a sudden onset of high fever, chills, and a petechial rash. Blood cultures reveal Neisseria meningitidis. What is the most effective preventive measure?
  • A. Antibiotic prophylaxis
  • B. Meningococcal vaccine
  • C. Isolation of the patient
  • D. Intravenous immunoglobulin
Q. A patient presents with severe diarrhea and dehydration. Stool culture reveals the presence of a toxin-producing organism. Which organism is most likely responsible?
  • A. Escherichia coli
  • B. Clostridium difficile
  • C. Salmonella enterica
  • D. Vibrio cholerae
Q. A patient with a history of HIV presents with oral thrush and esophageal pain. What is the most likely causative organism?
  • A. Candida albicans
  • B. Aspergillus fumigatus
  • C. Cryptococcus neoformans
  • D. Histoplasma capsulatum
Q. A patient with a history of travel to tropical regions presents with fever, jaundice, and abdominal pain. Which virus is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
  • A. Hepatitis A virus
  • B. Hepatitis B virus
  • C. Dengue virus
  • D. Yellow fever virus
Q. A patient with HIV is at risk for opportunistic infections. Which immune cells are primarily affected by the virus?
  • A. B cells
  • B. Cytotoxic T cells
  • C. Helper T cells
  • D. Natural killer cells
Q. How long should items be exposed to ethylene oxide gas for effective sterilization?
  • A. 1 hour
  • B. 4 hours
  • C. 8 hours
  • D. 12 hours
Q. How many days does it typically take for a primary immune response to peak after initial exposure to an antigen?
  • A. 1-2 days
  • B. 3-7 days
  • C. 10-14 days
  • D. 21-28 days
Q. How many different classes of antibodies are there in humans?
  • A. 2
  • B. 4
  • C. 5
  • D. 6
Q. How many minutes of exposure to 160°C dry heat is required for sterilization?
  • A. 30 minutes
  • B. 60 minutes
  • C. 90 minutes
  • D. 120 minutes
Q. If a disinfectant has a contact time of 10 minutes, how many times can it be used in an hour?
  • A. 4 times
  • B. 5 times
  • C. 6 times
  • D. 7 times
Q. If a pathogen has a doubling time of 30 minutes, how many bacteria will be present after 3 hours starting from a single bacterium?
  • A. 8
  • B. 16
  • C. 32
  • D. 64
Q. If a pathogen has an ID50 of 500 organisms, how many organisms are needed to infect 50% of a population of 1,000 individuals?
  • A. 250
  • B. 500
  • C. 1,000
  • D. 1,500
Q. If a patient has a bacterial load of 1,000,000 CFU/mL and a treatment reduces it by 99.9%, what is the remaining bacterial load?
  • A. 1 CFU/mL
  • B. 10 CFU/mL
  • C. 100 CFU/mL
  • D. 1,000 CFU/mL
Q. If a solution is diluted from 1000 ppm to 100 ppm, what is the dilution factor?
  • A. 1:10
  • B. 1:5
  • C. 1:20
  • D. 1:50
Q. If a sterilization cycle takes 30 minutes at 121°C, how long would it take at 134°C?
  • A. 10 minutes
  • B. 15 minutes
  • C. 20 minutes
  • D. 25 minutes
Q. If a vaccine has a 90% success rate and is administered to 500 individuals, how many individuals are expected to remain unprotected?
  • A. 50
  • B. 100
  • C. 200
  • D. 300
Q. In a case of septic shock, which immune response is primarily responsible for the symptoms observed?
  • A. Adaptive immune response
  • B. Innate immune response
  • C. Humoral immune response
  • D. Cell-mediated immune response
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